To which I may add this dilemma to our
God imposed his wrath due unto, and Christ
underwent the pains of hell for,
1. either all the sins
of all men,
2. or all the sins of some
3. or some sins of all men.
If the last, some sins of all men, then
have all men some sins to answer for, and so
shall no man be saved; for if God entered into
judgment with us, though it were with all
mankind for one sin, no flesh should be
justified in his sight: “If the LORD should mark
iniquities, who should stand?” Ps. cxxx. 2. We
might all go to cast all that we have “to the
moles and to the bats, to go into the clefts of
the rocks, and into the tops of the ragged
rocks, for fear of the Lord, and for the glory
of his majesty,” Isa. ii. 20, 21.
If the Second, that is it which we
affirm, that Christ in their stead and room
Suffered for all the sins of all the elect in
If the first, why then, are not all freed
from the punishment of all their sins?
You will say, “Because of their unbelief;
they will not believe.”
But this unbelief, is it a sin, or not?
If not, why should they be punished for
it? If it be, then Christ underwent the
punishment due to it, or not.
If so, then why must that hinder them more
than their other sins for which he died from
partaking of the fruit of his death?
If he did not, then did he not die for all
their sins. Let them choose which part they