The passage certainly has to with salvation, but also the qualities of Christ (vs 27) we all have. Thus because of grace, there is no DIFFERENCE between, Jew or Gentile, slave or free man, man or woman. If there was such a vast difference between a woman and a man in the areas of silence and teaching within the Church, why only two verses speaking to the need for woman to be silent and not to teach a man? Unless of course, there was a problem at the Corinthian church (like yelling across to the men’s side of the church, by vocal women, disrupting the proceedings) and woman (wives?) challenging the teachings of the man (husbands?) in 1 Timothy. Why would Paul contradict 1 Cor. 11:4-5, which suggest that both men and women were free to pray and prophesy in Church? Why would Priscilla be allowed to instruct Apollos? Why was Deborah allowed to judge men? And a question which has always been a bit of a mystery to me, is, why does Paul say woman will be saved in the act of child bearing, which implies marriage, yet, in 1Cor 7, he states a woman is better off not getting married, if we are going to stick to the letter of the law in verses 11 and 12 of 1 Timothy chapter 2? What if the word for man “aner” and the word for woman “gune” should have been translated “husband” and “wife” in 1Timothy 2:11-12? These two words for man and woman were used in this way over 40 times in the sum of the 150 times they were used in the New Testament? Could man’s tradition, have created a bias? George
