I did see the points you made, but what I am scratching my head about is where did he see that from the text?

How does he make the jump from Paul to Israel? And then, how does he connect the lines from Israel to the pagans?

It seems to be the same problem I saw in Wright's exegesis re: Galatians. He puts historical accounts and his own logical conclusions on par with Scripture, throws out the analogy of faith, and then uses his musings to "illuminate" the Scripture.

Trust the past to God's mercy, the present to God's love and the future to God's providence." - St. Augustine
Hiraeth