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speratus said:

A Note on Que/Menlo in 2 Corinthians 5:19 by Dr. Egbert W. Becker
If we interpret Que/Menlo as a circumstantial participle, as opponents of universal justification do, then whatever temporal significance this past participle has must be determined by the tense of the principal verb. . . . We are therefore forced to interpret h]n…Que/Menlo as periphrastic. Paul used an airiest rather than a present participle because a present participle with h]n yields an imperfect tense. Such an imperfect tense (as in h]n…Natala&sswn) correctly portrays God's work of reconciling, since that was an ongoing work which began with the incarnation and ended with the resurrection. An imperfect tense, however, could hardly be used to describe the commissioning of Paul, which took place at a very definite and limited time when Paul was called to carry the gospel to the Gentiles. Therefore only an airiest construction serves to express what actually happened.
If you believe that Becker's exegesis of this text is correct, then you must now cease from denying that you believe in "universal salvation", for the author clearly states that his view is against those who oppose "universal justification"; i.e., he embraces universal justification. Unless you are going to insist that "universal" doesn't mean "all-encompassing" (every man, woman and child that has existed, does currently exist and will exist", and that "justification" doesn't mean "declared righteous" as did Luther, Chemnitz, Calvin, Knox, Edwards, Owen, et AL, then the conclusion that you embrace "universal salvation" is inescapable and incontrovertible.

In His Grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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