Four questions;<br><br>1) Under a theonomy, who decides proper doctrine?<br><br>2) Wasn't the RCC a theonomy and this was part of the problem the reformationists had was too much power?<br><br>3) Didn't Israel, under that theonomy, have a prophet under direct guidance by God; or basically, wasn't Israel under direct revelation nearly consistently?<br><br>4) If Israel couldn't get it right, what makes Colin think he can?<br><br><br>God bless,<br><br>william<br><br>