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xyz said:
Not if we have read the thread.
<img src="/forum/images/graemlins/scratchchin.gif" alt="" /> I've read this thread and even contributed to it and I only see two basic and fundamentally antithetical answers:

1. Christ died for ALL and atoned for ALL sins, yet some are not not saved.

2. Christ died for the elect and atoned for ALL their sins, and thus all the elect are infallibly saved.

The first results in universalism. If one argues that not all are saved because they failed to do: xxxx or xxxx to finalize their salvation, then salvation is synergistic and not of grace. Either Christ's death was substitutionary and therefore accomplishes all that it was intended to do; vis a vis "save His people from their sins". Or, it was not substitutionary and thus something on the part of the sinner is required to accomplish salvation.

What say you? <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/shrug.gif" alt="" />

In His grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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