For the past four weeks our congregation had a "focus time on relationships". Our pastor worked out some daily reading and once a week small groups get together to discuss the week's topic.
At one point the pastor says the following: "God has a vision that the world be saved". He uses John 3:16 and says that "this says it all about God's vision for the world".
I feel itchy about such statements. If one has a vision about something you want to achieve, it basically means you strive towards that goal and hope that you achieve it. Having a vision does not mean that your vision necessarily will realize. Having a vision is like saying to yourself: "This is what I would like to achieve". The end result is not necessarily guarenteed.
Should one not rather refer to God's eternal decrees or His eternal counsel? God's counsel is His eternal plan which He surely will execute.
Ephesians 1:4,5:
just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself ...
and
Ephesians 1:11:
In Him also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will ...
I simply don't find in Scripture the idea that God has a vision for the world with vision having the normal meaning in this context. I also checked some books on Systematic Theology (Louis Berkhof and H. Bavinck) and simply don't find anything like that.
My suspicion is that the pastor want to get to the point that if God has a vision for the world then we should have the same vision. In this regard he says that Israel did not made God's vision for the world their own.
Should I feel itchy about such statements?
Johan
