The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Does God force men to sin?

I fail to see where you have been shown anything but kindness.

I say again, the verses referenced are irrelevant to the topic and your own point. Secondly, your conclusion that "God's sovereignty implies our sovereignty--free will--since we are made in the image of Christ..." is a non sequitur. 1) There is but one Sovereign, even God and Christ as LORD. 2) Man has never had a "free will" either before the Fall and especially after the Fall. That man is a "free agent" is true, i.e., he is capable of making choices. But those choices are determined by man's nature. 3) Even God Himself is void of a "free will", i.e., God Almighty cannot choose to will nor do that which is contrary to His thrice holy nature. The point is that God does not have to force any man to sin because all men sin naturally due to the fact that they are born sinners. (cf. Ps 51:5; 58:3; Job 15:14-16; Jh 3:3-6; Rom 3:10-18; 5:12; Eph 2:3)

What do you mean by "intercede" in regard to the prayers of believers? When the One Mediator "intercedes" for His own, it is efficacious (cf. Heb 7:25; Rom 8:34 and the Holy Spirit as Intercessor on the behalf of true believers Rom 8:27). Thus the One Mediator's intercession is far different than the intercessory prayers of believers.