Originally Posted by patricius79
How could the Church be the fulness of Jesus without partaking of all God's nature? Cf. also Col 2:9.
In reverse order:

1. Re: Col 2:9 This is a propositional statement that affirms the full deity of Christ.

Colossians 2:9 (ASV) "for in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily,"

That the two texts use the same word, "fulness" does not necessitate that they are synonymous nor related, for in fact, they are not related. The Colossians passage is focusing upon the full sufficiency of Christ in salvation vs. adding anything else to Him in order to be saved. The CONTEXT confirms that this understanding is true:

Quote
Colossians 2:4-12 (ASV) "This I say, that no one may delude you with persuasiveness of speech. For though I am absent in the flesh, yet am I with you in the spirit, joying and beholding your order, and the stedfastness of your faith in Christ. As therefore ye received Christ Jesus the Lord, [so] walk in him, rooted and builded up in him, and established in your faith, even as ye were taught, abounding in thanksgiving. Take heed lest there shall be any one that maketh spoil of you through his philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ: for in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily, and in him ye are made full, who is the head of all principality and power: in whom ye were also circumcised with a circumcision not made with hands, in the putting off of the body of the flesh, in the circumcision of Christ; having been buried with him in baptism, wherein ye were also raised with him through faith in the working of God, who raised him from the dead."
2. Re: Eph 1:22, 23 This passage is revealing a profound truth that Christ, as He is the Bridegroom, the Head of the Church is in some measure incomplete in that He is inextricably joined with the Church which He has purchased with His own blood (Acts 20:28). The emphasis is upon the relationship that exists uniquely and specifically between Christ and the Church. There is no implication whatsoever that the Church "shares in God's sovereignty". Again, the focus is upon Christ. The Church is "the fulness of Him (Christ)" as it is His bride. A wife cannot be said to share the intellect, morals, talents, etc., of her husband never mind his makeup (attributes).

Man has no sovereignty of his own. He is totally and wholly dependent upon God for all things, even the very breath he breathes. In fact, this entire idea that man possesses sovereignty was the original sin that preceded the Fall; both of man and of Satan. And so it is today that all men by nature strive for autonomy apart from God. One of its most pernicious expressions is to be found in the semi-Pelagian/Arminian and all other religions' insistence that man has a "free-will". igiveup

So no, man does not "share in God's sovereignty"!! He has not and cannot relinquish anything of His being or nature to the creature.

Isaiah 46:9 (ASV) "Remember the former things of old: for I am God, and there is none else; [I am] God, and there is none like me;"

Isaiah 48:11 (ASV) "For mine own sake, for mine own sake, will I do it; for how should [my name] be profaned? and my glory will I not give to another."

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simul iustus et peccator

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