The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Does God force men to sin?

Mike,

What is needed, as most always, is to define terms. "Free-will" is a term that was brought to the table by Pelagians, semi-Pelagians and Arminians against what the Church has believed from day one. Just to give you a reference point on the antiquity of all this, Augustine and the Church of his day refuted and denounced the Pelagians in their denial of the noetic effects of the fall, aka: "Total Depravity". (cf. The Council of Orange) They insisted as do all three of these groups which encompass all religions, sects and cults outside of the historic Church, that man was never without the ability to choose, to some measure, either good or evil. Put another way, they insist that man is capable of choosing that which is contrary to his nature. The Scriptures and Calvinism in complete agreement teach that man is a "free-agent", i.e., he can make choices. But those choices are limited according to a man's nature. Thus, a sinner who is 'dead in trespasses and sins', i.e., a natural man who has inherited the corruption of nature due to Adam's transgression (1/2 of Original Sin; the other half being the imputed guilt), has no ability to choose that which is good, to love God, to turn from his sin and love righteousness. In this sense, fallen man can ONLY choose that which is evil because he loves sin.

So, God being thrice holy in His very nature is incapable of sinning, i.e., transgressing his own holy law. Therefore, God doesn't have a "free-will"; the ability to choose that which is contrary to His nature.

IF you are wanting to discuss this matter further, I would suggest that you start a new thread as it is a bit off topic... "Does God force men to sin?"