Quote
We know from using the Analogy of Faith, what Peter was NOT saying, i.e., Christ's atoning death was not designed for "all"; indiscriminately for every single individual. If that were the case, then one would be forced into a form of Amyraldianism; Christ actually paid the penalty for "all", thus satisfying the penalty due to them "all", but it is not made effective unless it is received by faith. Thus, the challenge is to determine in what sense "bought" is to be understood.

I would like to know where Scripture is ever given the blanket term of "analogy" in the text itself? Since truth can only be stated in propositions, how is truth an "analogy" rather than a logical proposition? Was David the king of Israel, or is that merely an "analogy"?


****

Quote
Lastly, although we would like to think that we can understand everything written in Scripture (some actually hold to this view tenaciously, saying that we can not only understand everything written but we can know it perfectly as God Himself knows it), we must humble ourselves and admit that this is not possible due to 1) some things written are hard to understand (2Pet 3:16), 2) our own intellectual inabilities, and 3) that we all labor under the noetic effects of the Fall.

It is certainly true that men make mistakes in theology. Some understand the theology and reject it outright. Both are the results of the noetic effects of sin. However, to say that because some students make mistakes in algebra does not mean that algebra is an analogy of the truth rather than being true in and of itself. If the Bible is not THE Word of God, what IS it? Pray tell? Your view that Scripture is an analogy of the truth is the neo-orthodox view, not the view of the Scriptures themselves. Simply because people make mistakes in algebra does not make algebra an "analogy of the truth" and neither do mistakes in reading the Bible make the Bible an "analogy" of the truth.

I may not understand all the propositions of the Bible, because there are many of them. But if I understand even ONE proposition of the Bible and I understand what the logic of that proposition plainly says, then I know what God knows on that point. Surely God knows many more propositions than I know. He knows directly and intuitively while I only know what He has revealed in His Word. But when God says in the Bible that David was the king of Israel, am I to understand that God doesn't intend for me to know that information? If that proposition is something different for God and for me, then I cannot understand anything God says in the Bible.

Scripture alone is the Word of God.

Charlie

For "who has known the mind of the LORD that he may instruct Him?" But we have the mind of Christ. (1 Corinthians 2:16 NKJ)