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#49798
Fri Jun 14, 2013 2:42 AM
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Joined: Apr 2001
Posts: 4,893 Likes: 49
Needs to get a Life
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OP
Needs to get a Life
Joined: Apr 2001
Posts: 4,893 Likes: 49 |
I hope I can phrase my questions the way I intend them, because finding the right words is hard for me.
I have read quite a few articles on topics like 'the sufficiency of Scripture' ; 'verbal plenary inspiration' and related issues. What I am looking for is information and comments on the aspect of translating difficulties from the original writings, into our various languages.
I have a few issues in mind. Such as were the original manuscripts inerrant and inspired in such a way that every jot and tittle were inerrant, spelling misstates included?
I have read quite a few Reformed Churches web sites who state that they believe as originally given, they believe the Bible is inspired and inerrant. Is this an accurate description of this doctrine?
If so, would it not conclude that seeing we now don't have the inspired texts, we have copies into various language that bring translation problems and therefore are no longer inerrant and inspired the way the originals were? This isn't saying that what we have isn't trustworthy.
Tom
Last edited by Tom; Fri Jun 14, 2013 2:49 AM.
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