That could well be right about not being a subset, but in Gap Theory, of which i am a passionate advocate, the first Earth also groaned with death and carnivory but no man was around, see my first post for 'undeniable proof of gap theory'- I look forward very much to your comments on that, btw. Also there is plenty of evidence of death and carnivory throughout The Paleozoic Era and the Mesozoic Era with absolutely no evidence of man.

I have read your link through article and found it very provocative and I enjoyed it and your style of delivery immensely.. It sounds like you are saying that God only loved the elect. Did nt He love the others? In the English, at any rate, it sounds like the 'his own' and the 'believing ones' are essentially synonyms in your translation whereas it sounds, in the KJV 'the world' is all inclusive and the 'believers' a subset of it. It would seem repetitive then to add the 'whosoever believeth in him'. because that is his 'elect' anyway. Why the qualification then?

The foundation of the world?(FOTW) Which, I suggest, is the time of The Abrahamic Covenant. How do you square that with your definition? Well before Christ's time , so there was a kosmos then? were they the elect? The FOTW also sounds like a 'kosmos' was broken down (katabole') first to form a new 'kosmos'?

To answer your article?
1. John 1:29: "Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world." Did Christ by His death take away the sin of all men without exception? If He did, all men without exception shall be saved
Answer: A finite amount of suffering to takeaway every sin that could have ever been committed past and present and future.The text does not seem to say they all have to accept it. But He has done enough for them all to do so would seem to be an acceptable interpretation to me.

2.- John 6:33: "For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world." Does Jesus give life (not, ineffectually offer life, but, efficaciously give life) to all men without exception? If He does, all men without exception have eternal life.
Answer: I think this verse is consistent with your position. But also, if 'kosmos' is the 'whole of the unsaved' then it still logically makes sense. He gives life to the 'sea' of unsaved, logically there seems to be no need to give it to everyone in that 'sea'?

3.- John 17:9: "I (Jesus) pray not for the world." Does Jesus refuse to pray for all men without exception?
Answer: this would seem to directly contradict your position? The preceding words state in the KJV

'I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thin'e'

That Jesus prays for the 'elect-them' and not for the 'world-kosmos' meaning the elect and the kosmos are different? this seems more consistent with kosmos meaning the 'sea of unsaved souls' or maybe both saved and unsaved. You site a different meaning of kosmos to refute this. Why? I would like to use the same meanings for both. Here is our difference, I suggest that the more I study scripture then I am reminded about a Robin Bullock quote, 'we are dealing with God here and He may mean many or all different translations at the same time'.So we both maybe part right?
The 'father of lights' loved those lights-his offspring before they came to Earth, i think he still loved them after they sinned and also after they were saved.