You have 'dumped' far too much to give adequate answers to each and every statement/question you have made.
Answer:I will dump on you less now :;)

1. Nowhere in Scripture is the teaching that God "loves everybody"
answer: Jesus and the Father are one (John 10 30) Jesus says on numerous occasions to love 'one another' as He has, Himself therefor, God loves as does Jesus and loves everyone, including those that hate him.

To show this is patently an incorrect statement all one need to provide is a statement that God doesn't love but actually hates one individual
Answer, I do not follow this logic, especially when applied to God. It seems possible to do both? I would not limit God. The passages you quote: Ps 5:5; 11:5; Prov 6:16-19; Mal 1:1-3; all of these actions (except Esau) could be performed by the saved, Does God hate those too? and not still love them?

The plain text meaning of John 316 is the 'whosoever believeth in him is a subset of the 'world'. Your interpretation could be written as 'for God so loved the elect,,..., that the elect would not die but have eternal life. Why would God use synonymous terms?.
John 17 9 ' I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine' the them is the elect. So that could be written 'I pray for the kosmos,, i pray not for the kosmos', Why change the meaning? John 17 19 could be read as a direct contradiction of your position. Is it not equally legitimate to translate 'kosmos' as the whole of the unsaved
("I never knew (ginosko) you=I never loved you), Why? Agape is 'love' in John 3 16 and 'ginosko' (knew) I interpret as the indwelling knowledge.