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Originally Posted by Pilgrim
1) The problem is NOT just how people [i]translate 1Sam 18:1 but rather what the actual Hebrew is and then do not use the Bible's own hermeneutic to translate it.
2) More important is the fact that homosexuality is clearly forbidden by God. Myriad passages could be offered to support any/all forms of homosexuality is a sin, an abomination, against nature, contrary to God's creation, etc.

Thus it makes no wit of difference how some will use grammatical gymnastics to justify what God hates. Many, if not most, modern translations are corrupt and do not faithfully translate the original languages. The translators are typically social warriors and embrace political correctness. igiveup

So, your answer on qashar is that the word is not in the feminine gender in 1 Sam. 18:1 as it is in the other two references clearly referring to females? You say that is not the "actual Hebrew"? The scholars who wrote those two Interlinears of the OT are just social warriors and embrace political correctness? The Hebrew-English Interlinears that I quote are just in error or intentionally misleading? I am not asking about where all other places in the Scripture homosexual sexual sin is mentioned. I'm asking about that particular word as found in 1 Sam. 18:1 using exegesis, not eisegesis.

The Zondervan OT Interlinear I quoted is by John R. Kohlenberger III and I'd not consider him a social warrior or PC advocate. A short article on his death is found on the Accordance Software site: https://accordancebible.com/John-Kohlenberger/

I'm looking for a source authority to explain the rendering of qashar in 1 Sam. 18:1 in the feminine gender, not opinions on the Bible and homosexuality.