Originally Posted by jta
I won't try to start a "KJV only" fight here, but I will note that this is one reason why I trust neither modern translations, nor aberrant text types (including but not necessarily limited to the Alexandrinian family).

God's English-speaking people managed to get by with the KJV for hundreds of years, without (AFAIK) ever having to deal with nonsense like "The Bible supports sodomy."

Also, it does not matter to me how good a translation may be, if it is a translation of an aberrant text.

The burden of proof is not on us to prove that Jonathan and David were not guilty of sodomy together. It is on those who would wickedly claim that they were.

My question is NOT about the Greek of the NT! I am quoting 1 Sam. 18:1, the Hebrew where I see no disagreement here about the actual Hebrew wording.