Originally Posted by John_C
I found it. Matthew 26:29 (page 911)

"By speaking of 'the fruit of the vine' Jesus undoubtedly refers to wine. . . . . . . At this time of the year (April), and under conditions then prevailing in Judea, it is hard to think of anything but fermented grape juice, that is, wine, the kind of wine used
at Passover; hence, diluted or paschal wine."

So, what is he referring when he says diluted or paschal wine?
I found what I believe is more than a reasonable explanation and much more concerning the wine used in Protestant churches, etc. The author provides links to salient articles dealing with the subject of wine and the Church.

Go here: “Fruit of the Vine”: Three Parts Water, One Part Wine.

I see Tom jumped in this discussion and mentioned the ongoing debate whether it is even appropriate (biblically warranted) to use actual wine in the N.T. Church today. One of the salient articles I referred to above is found there which I truly appreciated. Here is a link to that one particular article: Objections to Wine Use Answered.

ENJOY! grin


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simul iustus et peccator

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