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SovereignGrace
SovereignGrace
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#20798 Sun Jan 09, 2005 11:44 PM
Joined: Mar 2003
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MarieP Offline OP
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I thought Robertson was a Calvinist, and yet we find the following in his explanation of Ephesians 2:8 in his Word Pictures in the New Testament:

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2:8 For by grace (\tˆi gar chariti\). Explanatory reason. "By the grace" already mentioned in verse 5 and so with the article. Through faith (\dia piste“s\). This phrase he adds in repeating what he said in verse 5 to make it plainer. "Grace" is God's part, "faith" ours. And that (\kai touto\). Neuter, not feminine \tautˆ\, and so refers not to \pistis\ (feminine) or to \charis\ (feminine also), but to the act of being saved by grace conditioned on faith on our part. Paul shows that salvation does not have its source (\ex hum“n\, out of you) in men, but from God. Besides, it is God's gift (\d“ron\) and not the result of our work.

This seems unclear. What exactly does he mean by "Grace is God's part, faith ours"?


True godliness is a sincere feeling which loves God as Father as much as it fears and reverences Him as Lord, embraces His righteousness, and dreads offending Him worse than death~ Calvin
MarieP #20799 Tue Jan 11, 2005 12:21 AM
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SemperReformanda said:This seems unclear. What exactly does he mean by "Grace is God's part, faith ours"?
I think he explains that when he says "Paul shows that salvation does not have its source (\ex hum“n\, out of you) in men (either the grace or the faith, as he points out), but from God. Besides, it is God's gift (\d“ron\) and not the result of our work."


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