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#21139 Sun Feb 06, 2005 10:01 AM
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Sorry, for the delay in my answer! However, Pilgrim took up the truth against your statements. I am still waiting, though, on one thing:

<marquee behavior="alternate"><table style="filter:glow (color=#FFFF00 strength=2)">[color:"FF0000"]<font size="7">EXEGESIS</font>[/color]</table></marquee>


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speratus said:
However, if the difference was really significant, why don't the Reform split over this issue? From your previous statements, you appear to be Zwinglian. Yet, you confess the Calvinist WCF?
I do not embrace the Zwinglian view. I've never said that I did nor even hinted that I even sympathized with that view. On the matter of the Lord's Supper, I find no differences between what I hold and what the WCF states. You really need to get out of the house more. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/wink.gif" alt="" />

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Lastly you said:
As Belgic Confession states, the false church persecutes those who live holy lives and who rebuke it for its faults, greed, and idolatry (e.g., Dr. Shultz).
But I hope you aren't going to tell me that you: 1) are applying a statement from one of those "false churches" you denigrate to your "only true church on earth"? Wouldn't that be hypocritical? 2) honestly believe that every statement ever made by anyone or any group, denomination, etc., which contradicts what you and/or your denomination believe is persecuting the "one true church on earth"?

QUESTION: Do you believe that your denomination is infallible? If not, could you point out which doctrine(s) you believe are in error?

In His Grace,


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Pilgrim #21141 Sun Feb 06, 2005 1:16 PM
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Sorry, I guess I misunderstood your comment, "I understand the difference between Luther's view re: Christ's presence in the Supper compared to Calvin's and I reject both! I believe that neither went far enough from Rome in their respective positions. For me, Bullinger expressed most correctly what Scripture teaches on this issue..." I'll go back and read Bullinger.

1) No. A church does not forfeit its orthodox character through the casual intrusion of errors, provided these are combated and eventually removed by means of doctrinal discipline. Acts 20:29-31; 1 Tim. 1: 3. After Dr. Benke admonished Rev. Benke and suspended him for teaching contrary to scripture and the Book of Concord, he was not removed from the synod but he was, instead, vindicated by the governing convention. At that point, the LCMS became a false church body.

2)Statements are not persecution. Burning people at the stake (Hus), firing them from their job(Schulz), etc. is persecution.

My denomination is not infallible. By clearing Rev. Benke of all charges, they falsely teach that introduction of idolatry into worship is a matter of indifference. Just as in Reformation times, it is a time of confession.

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Formula of Concord, Solid DeclarationWe believe, teach, and confess also that at the time of confession, when the enemies of God's Word desire to suppress the pure doctrine of the holy Gospel, the entire congregation of God, yea, every Christian, but especially the ministers of the Word, as the leaders of the congregation of God are bound by God's Word to confess freely and openly the doctrine, and what belongs to the whole of religion, not only in words, but also in works and with deeds; and that then, in this case, even in such adiaphora, they must not yield to the adversaries, or permit these to be forced upon them by their enemies, whether by violence or cunning, to the detriment of the true worship of God and the introduction and sanction of idolatry.

#21142 Sun Feb 06, 2005 4:29 PM
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Statements are not persecution. Burning people at the stake (Hus), firing them from their job(Schulz), etc. is persecution.
And what of your continued false theology above? speratus you are now in the same company with other false theolgians....

Matthew 5:11 says, “Blessed are ye, when men shall revile you, and persecute you, and shall say all manner of evil against you falsely, for my sake.” Apparently Jesus understands “statements” as persecution. In the above verse “persecution” referred to takes various forms: i.e. reproach, slander, etc.

Here is a quote from the International Standard Bible Encyclopedia as to the definition of persecution.

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Various Forms:

It would take different forms, ranging through every possible variety, from false accusation to the infliction of death, beyond which, He pointed out (Matthew 10:28; Luke 12:4), persecutors are unable to go. The methods of persecution which were employed by the Jews, and also by the heathen against the followers of Christ, were such as these: (1) Men would revile them and would say all manner of evil against them falsely, for Christ's sake (Matthew 5:11). (2) Contempt and disparagement: "Say we not well that thou art a Samaritan, and hast a demon?" (John 8:48); "If they have called the master of the house Beelzebub, how much more them of his household!" (Matthew 10:25). (3) Being, solely on account of their loyalty to Christ, forcibly separated from the company and the society of others, and expelled from the synagogues or other assemblies for the worship of God: "Blessed are ye, when men shall hate you, and when they shall separate you from their company, and reproach you, and cast out your name as evil, for the Son of man's sake" (Luke 6:22); "They shall put you out of the synagogues" (John 16:2). (4) Illegal arrest and spoliation of goods, and death itself.

All these various methods, used by the persecutor, were foretold, and all came to pass. It was the fear of apprehension and death that led the eleven disciples to forsake Jesus in Gethsemane and to flee for their lives. Jesus often forewarned them of the severity of the persecution which they would need to encounter if they were loyal to Him: "The hour cometh, that whosoever killeth you shall think that he offereth service unto God" (John 16:2); "I send unto you prophets .... some of them shall ye kill and crucify; and some of them shall ye scourge in your synagogues, and persecute from city to city" (Matthew 23:34).

In the Case of Jesus:

In the case of Christ Himself, persecution took the form of attempts to entrap Him in His speech (Matthew 22:15); the questioning of His authority (Mark 11:28); illegal arrest; the heaping of every insult upon Him as a prisoner; false accusation; and a violent and most cruel death.
You need to ex-communicate yourself for once again spreading false doctrine! <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/bash.gif" alt="" />


Reformed and Always Reforming,
J_Edwards #21143 Mon Feb 07, 2005 1:29 AM
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Of course, slander, reproach, etc. are persecution. But Pilgrim was referring to contradictory statements of doctrine not personal attack.

#21144 Mon Feb 07, 2005 6:53 AM
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speratus said:
Of course, slander, reproach, etc. are persecution.
I am glad you agree, but that was not your statement. You specified a definition of persecution as being "Statements are not persecution. Burning people at the stake (Hus), firing them from their job(Schulz), etc. is persecution."

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But Pilgrim was referring to contradictory statements of doctrine not personal attack.
Is it not personal to God when you defame and mis-state His holy doctrine and make it profane? Is it possible to blasphemy God's doctrine and thus persecute God and be punished? Can Christians be persecuted by blaspheme?

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1 Timothy 6:1 Let as many servants as are under the yoke count their own masters worthy of all honour, that the name of God and his doctrine be not blasphemed.

Revelation 13:6 And he opened his mouth in blasphemy against God, to blaspheme his name, and his tabernacle, and them that dwell in heaven.

Hebrews 10:29 Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?
False doctrine persecutes not only God, but His children (His Church) as well.


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J_Edwards #21145 Mon Feb 07, 2005 12:40 PM
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I am glad you agree, but that was not your statement. You specified a definition of persecution as being "Statements are not persecution. Burning people at the stake (Hus), firing them from their job(Schulz), etc. is persecution."

Verbal persecution falls under etc.

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Is it not personal to God when you defame and mis-state His holy doctrine and make it profane? Is it possible to blasphemy God's doctrine and thus persecute God and be punished? Can Christians be persecuted by blaspheme?

Yes. Have I said anything to the contrary?

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False doctrine persecutes not only God, but His children (His Church) as well.

I agree. But let's return to the context of Pilgrim's question, do you "honestly believe that every statement ever made by anyone or any group, denomination, etc., which contradicts what you and/or your denomination believe is persecuting the 'one true church on earth'?"

If you have read the preceding posts, you understand that Pilgrim was not referring to the one Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church but my view of true visible churches. When representatives of true churches and false churches meet to freely discuss theological issues without rancor or slander (say on a discussion board called "The Highway"), there is no persecution of the true churches.

I was reading Luther's reply to his Papal excommunication for teaching, "The burning of heretics is contrary to the will of the Holy Spirit." As might be expected, he defended himself with scripture. But, I found it interesting that he also said "from the beginning until now the Church has never yet burned a heretic, and never will." Only false churches would perform such acts not a true visible church.

#21146 Mon Feb 07, 2005 5:57 PM
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speratus said:

We do not consider the difference significant since both Reform camps deny the real presence of the body and blood of Christ in the unity of the person.

In what does the "Real Presence" consist, Speratus? To say that Christ's body and blood are present with the bread and wine is not the same as to say that they are the bread and wine. The phrase in Latin, hoc est corpus meum ("this is my body"), which Luther insisted on does not indicate that the body is present with the bread. The Romanists go still further and say that the bread and wine become the body and blood, but even that is not to say that they are the body and blood, for Christ never said they the bread and wine become anything, but that they already are.


Kyle

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#21147 Mon Feb 07, 2005 7:04 PM
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When representatives of true churches and false churches meet to freely discuss theological issues without rancor or slander (say on a discussion board called "The Highway"), there is no persecution of the true churches.
Where we differ at is you see the Church as a building or denomination and thus see no persecution, and Scripture and I see it as people, individuals (we are the body, Christ is the head, etc.), that may belong to a denomination or worship in a building, etc. but none-the-less "the real Church" is persecuted...., and if "one member suffereth, all the members suffer with it; or one member is honored, all the members rejoice with it. Now ye are the body of Christ, and severally members thereof," etc. (1 Cor 12:26-27).


Reformed and Always Reforming,
CovenantInBlood #21148 Tue Feb 08, 2005 12:27 AM
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CovenantInBlood said:
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speratus said:

We do not consider the difference significant since both Reform camps deny the real presence of the body and blood of Christ in the unity of the person.

In what does the "Real Presence" consist, Speratus? To say that Christ's body and blood are present with the bread and wine is not the same as to say that they are the bread and wine. The phrase in Latin, hoc est corpus meum ("this is my body"), which Luther insisted on does not indicate that the body is present with the bread. The Romanists go still further and say that the bread and wine become the body and blood, but even that is not to say that they are the body and blood, for Christ never said they the bread and wine become anything, but that they already are.

We know from scripture that the bread and wine remain unchanged and that the body and the blood of Christ are distributed to and received by those who eat and drink. In the communication of the divine attributes, the body and blood of Christ are present in, with, and under the bread and wine in the incomprehensible spiritual mode in which He neither occupies nor vacates space.

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Formula of Concord quoting Luther,
the incomprehensible, spiritual mode, according to which He neither occupies nor vacates space, but penetrates all creatures wherever He pleases ; as, to make an imperfect comparison, my sight penetrates and is in air, light, or water, and does not occupy or vacate space; as a sound or tone penetrates and is in air or water or board and wall, and also does not occupy or vacate space; likewise, as light and heat penetrate and are in air, water, glass, crystal, and the like, and also do not vacate or occupy space; and much more of the like . This mode He used when He rose from the closed (and sealed) sepulcher, and passed through the closed door (to His disciples), and in the bread and wine in the Holy Supper, and, as it is believed, when He was born of His mother.

#21149 Tue Feb 08, 2005 1:47 AM
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speratus said:
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CovenantInBlood said:
In what does the "Real Presence" consist, Speratus? To say that Christ's body and blood are present with the bread and wine is not the same as to say that they are the bread and wine. The phrase in Latin, hoc est corpus meum ("this is my body"), which Luther insisted on does not indicate that the body is present with the bread. The Romanists go still further and say that the bread and wine become the body and blood, but even that is not to say that they are the body and blood, for Christ never said they the bread and wine become anything, but that they already are.

We know from scripture that the bread and wine remain unchanged and that the body and the blood of Christ are distributed to and received by those who eat and drink. In the communication of the divine attributes, the body and blood of Christ are present in, with, and under the bread and wine in the incomprehensible spiritual mode in which He neither occupies nor vacates space.

To quote an insistent Luther, "hoc EST"! Scripture knows nothing of Christ's body being present "in, with, and under" the bread and wine. Christ said, "This IS My body"! Nowhere did He say, "My body is present in, with, and under". If you want to treat the text as literally as possible, then you must consider the bread itself to be the body, and the wine itself to be the blood.


Kyle

I tell you, this man went down to his house justified.
CovenantInBlood #21150 Tue Feb 08, 2005 5:13 AM
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To quote an insistent Luther, "hoc EST"! Scripture knows nothing of Christ's body being present "in, with, and under" the bread and wine. Christ said, "This IS My body"! Nowhere did He say, "My body is present in, with, and under".


By the same logic, scripture knows nothing of the hypostatic union. The formula; in, with, and under; to describe the nature of the sacramental union is employed because many falsely accuse us of consubstantiation.

The papists correctly accept "This is My Body" literally but ignore the other text that says the bread remains bread. The Zwinglians do the very opposite. The Calvinists attempt to reconcile the two texts by separating Christ from His humanity contrary to the texts that speak of the unity of the person.

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If you want to treat the text as literally as possible, then you must consider the bread itself to be the body, and the wine itself to be the blood.

No. Saying the bread is literally Christ's body would be adding to the text. The text literally says that which is distributed and received is Christ's body.

#21151 Tue Feb 08, 2005 10:23 AM
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Sorry, Speratus. "This is my body." Taken literally, that does not say "that which is distributed and recieved is Christ's body." Christ said of the bread, "this is my body."

By the way, I'm Zwinglian when is comes to communion; just trying to point out an inconsistency here.


(Latin phrase goes here.)
Henry #21152 Tue Feb 08, 2005 12:01 PM
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You are mistaken. Christ did not say the bread was His body.

"Take eat; this is my body" does not mean "This is not my body". Nor does it mean "This bread has become my body." Nor does it mean "This is my body but only in a spiritual sense." "Take eat; this is my body" means that Christ gives us His natural body to be eaten.

Luther would not have any fellowship, let alone communion, with Papists/Zwinglians/Calvinists. This intolerant attitude is held by all confessional Lutherans (Augsburg Confession, Formula of Concord, etc.). Do Zwinglians and Calvinists share fellowship and/or communion despite their differences?

#21153 Tue Feb 08, 2005 3:31 PM
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By the same logic, scripture knows nothing of the hypostatic union.

But it does. This site gives a helpful overview.

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The Calvinists attempt to reconcile the two texts by separating Christ from His humanity contrary to the texts that speak of the unity of the person.

Calvinists do not separate Christ from His humanity, and you have persisted in willful misrepresentation. We say that Christ is one person with two natures, and that these natures, while joined in one person, remain distinct and unmixed. Thus the humanity of Christ is not divine, and the divinity of Christ is not humane. The communicatio idiomatum means that the attributes of both human and divine natures can be ascribed to the PERSON of Christ, as He consists of two natures; it does not mean that the each nature can be said to possess the attributes of the other!

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No. Saying the bread is literally Christ's body would be adding to the text. The text literally says that which is distributed and received is Christ's body.

Sophistry, Speratus, mere sophistry! The bread and wine are distributed, and they are respectively said to BE the body and blood of Christ. If you insist on a literal interpretation as do the Romanists, you had better insist on a truly literal interpretation, and not some "half-way there" explanation.


Kyle

I tell you, this man went down to his house justified.
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