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#24303 Sun Apr 17, 2005 1:43 PM
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Please check all the views on Hell you believe to be true? Enjoy your research and then support your view: [Linked Image]


Please check all the views on Hell you believe to be true? Enjoy your research:
multiple choice
Votes accepted starting: Sun Apr 17, 2005 1:00 AM
You must vote before you can view the results of this poll.
J_Edwards #24304 Sun Apr 17, 2005 6:04 PM
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Indeed, “NONE of the above” is the correct answer. Bertrand Russell condemned Christ’s view on hell as morally repugnant. John Hick’s labels the idea that God may inflict unending torment on sinners a “grim fantasy” and “a serious perversion of the Christian Gospel.” Hicks espouses “universalism” (having an unbiblical view of 1 Tim 2:3-4, that “all” would be saved ) and sees an “always” loving God that will “never cease to desire and actively work for the salvation of each created person” (Evil and the God of Love, p. 378-379). Hicks embraces other heresies as well as he taught pluralism (God and the Universe of Faiths) and he does not believe Jesus is the incarnate Son of God (The Myth of God Incarnate).

Clark Pinnock likes some of heretic Hick’s reasoning. He believes in a second chance at death saying, “God does not cease to be gracious to sinners just because they are no longer living” (A Wideness in God’s Mercy, p 170) and then if they don’t make it, the annihilation of the wicked. Even Pinnock admits the lack of Scriptural support for his view, however, he does appeal to 1 Pet 3:19-20 saying that Christ “preached to the spirits in prison.” However, 1 Peter does not record any positive response to Jesus’ preaching and moreover, we would need to grant that Christ went to hell (IMO He didn't, read Berkhof). Even NT Wright gets this correct saying, “The next chapter (1 Peter, especially vv. 17-18) rules out the possibility that ‘those who do not obey God’s gospel’ will be saved” (Towards a Biblical View of Universalism).

John Stott’s (Atkinson’s; Froom’s; Fudge’s; Guillebaud’s) view of annihilationism does not stand up to the scrutiny of Scripture (Rev 22:11, etc.). Stott (please note he may have changed his position, but I have not been able to confirm this even through JSM) does a song and dance on the language of the text of Scripture saying “destruction” (total) is a final state of perdition. Fudge says that "destruction" is for the “utter, absolute, irreversible, annihilation” of the Beast and the Anti-Christ. However, if one reads “the Bible” they are "cast into the lake of fire and brimstone“ (still alive) in Rev 20:10 "and they shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever" (compare 2 Thess 1:9, which cannot be annihilation, because their "eternal destruction from the face of the Lord and from the glory of his might" presupposes their continuous existence)! Thus, this argument has no foundation for Stott and others to stand upon. Moreover, if we look at Matt 25:46, “eternal” (aionios) modifies both “punishment” and “life.” Thus, the “life” extends as long as the “punishment” will extend! This is an insurmountable problem for Stott and others in his camp. Guillebaud, an annihilationist, sums it up nicely (somewhat), saying;

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It is not denied, that if it were clear beyond question from Bible teaching elsewhere that the doom of the lost will be everlasting torment, it would be quite possible to understand ‘death’, ‘destruction’ and the like, as meaning a wretched and ruined existence. (The Righteous Judge, p. 19)
Thus, who would like to make a few brief points in defending the true view of hell?

Some books worth considering here are:

Hell on Trail by Robert Peterson and The Other Side of the Good News, by Larry Dixon (the normal warnings apply).


Reformed and Always Reforming,
J_Edwards #24305 Sun Apr 17, 2005 6:14 PM
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Nope--You're wrong again


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gnarley #24306 Sun Apr 17, 2005 6:15 PM
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gnarley said:
Nope--You're wrong again
Pray tell how? Seriously, what concerning Stott's view do you find correct? <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/scratch1.gif" alt="" /> Please defend your position.


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J_Edwards #24307 Sun Apr 17, 2005 8:39 PM
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Didn't I read somewhere that John Stott recanted his heretical position and returned to the Traditional (aka: biblical) view, perhaps after reading J.I. Packer's criticism? Maybe it is simply wishful thinking on my part. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/giggle.gif" alt="" />


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J_Edwards #24308 Mon Apr 18, 2005 7:24 AM
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...he does appeal to 1 Pet 3:19-20 saying that Christ preached to the spirits in prison

I've never really understood this verse. Could someone elaborate? Thanks


tj
"-that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection..."
Pilgrim #24309 Mon Apr 18, 2005 8:31 AM
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Pilgrim said:
Didn't I read somewhere that John Stott recanted his heretical position and returned to the Traditional (aka: biblical) view, perhaps after reading J.I. Packer's criticism? Maybe it is simply wishful thinking on my part. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/giggle.gif" alt="" />
I received similar information and e-mailed JSM (sometime ago) and received back an e-mail basically stating they don't have time to answer e-mails. Dr. Chapell believes that Dr. Stott is, despite his views on hell, "still within the pale of an evangelical truth," but this view in different forms was condemned as heresy in ages past. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/shrug.gif" alt="" /> J. I. Packer's article in I believe Evangelical Affirmations was good <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/BigThumbUp.gif" alt="" />


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Pilgrim #24310 Mon Apr 18, 2005 9:20 AM
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The one site I've seen that mentions Stott recanting his heretical view on hell now no longer says he's recanted of it.


True godliness is a sincere feeling which loves God as Father as much as it fears and reverences Him as Lord, embraces His righteousness, and dreads offending Him worse than death~ Calvin
thredj #24311 Mon Apr 18, 2005 9:47 AM
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18 For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit;
19 in which also He went and made proclamation to the spirits now in prison,
20 who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water.

I've heard it preached that it was the pre-incarnate Christ who preached to those in Noah's day, and now those people are in prison.

Jonathan Edwards wrote this sermon on it.

Here's a sermon by OPC minister Bill Baldwin.

And here is one by John Piper.


True godliness is a sincere feeling which loves God as Father as much as it fears and reverences Him as Lord, embraces His righteousness, and dreads offending Him worse than death~ Calvin
MarieP #24312 Mon Apr 18, 2005 10:51 AM
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SemperReformanda said:
The one site I've seen that mentions Stott recanting his heretical view on hell now no longer says he's recanted of it.
I just sent another e-mail, maybe I will get a rational answer this time.


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After burial, Christ, true God and true man, descended into hell, conquered the devil, and proclaimed His victory to the damned spirits in prison as part of their punishment.

I don't understand how Berkhof and the others can deny Christ's physical descent into hell. In the Apostle's Creed, we confess, "Jesus Christ... was crucified, dead, and buried: he descended into hell." Does the Reformed Church reject the Apostle's Creed?

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speratus said:
After burial, Christ, true God and true man, descended into hell, conquered the devil, and proclaimed His victory to the damned spirits in prison as part of their punishment.

I don't understand how Berkhof and the others can deny Christ's physical descent into hell. In the Apostle's Creed, we confess, "Jesus Christ... was crucified, dead, and buried: he descended into hell." Does the Reformed Church reject the Apostle's Creed?
As is typical, the answer is because this is nowhere to be found in Scripture, even though some man-made document you make your source of truth states it to be so. The issue is what does "he descended into hell" (taken from the later versions of the Apostle's Creed, and a few other Confessions and Catechisms mean? The majority of the Reformers understood that phrase to mean that Christ was put into the grave (hades) and not that He actually went to "hell", i.e., the abode of the spirits of the damned. Such a view is fraught with problems which contradict other doctrines which are far more perspicuous and held to be true.

One of the more interesting and I believe excellent explanations of this phrase was written by Herman Hoeksema in his 3-volume set, The Triple Knowledge: an Exposition of the Heidelberg Catechism, on "Lord's Day 16". I have attached this section as a Word.doc. If there is anyone who wants to read this but can't open it, send me a PM and I'll e-mail you a copy as a ".pdf" file.

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Pilgrim #24315 Mon Apr 18, 2005 6:29 PM
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Pilgrim,

Maybe our thoughts about the Apostles Creed need "Reformed"?

Nowhere in scripture is there such a thing as the "Apostles Creed".

After all, why do Christians so admire a creed that has dubious and possibly heretical content? Then top this all off with a lie for a title.

Denny

Roms 3:22-24


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Simon Peter answered Him, "Lord, to whom shall we go? You have the words of eternal life." [John 6:68]
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All the churches I'm familiar with agrees with Pilgrim's assessment. I even know a few churches that remove the phrase he descended into hell from the creed when citing it in public worship. I'm not sure if that is proper or not.


John Chaney

"having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in your faith . . ." Colossians 2:7
Adopted #24317 Mon Apr 18, 2005 7:05 PM
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Adopted,

I do think that the "Apostle's Creed", albeit with a dubious title, is solidly biblical in its content and thus I have no problem affirming it. The "he descended into hell" phrase is not found in older copies and thus I suspect it was added at some later date. However, I agree with Hoeksema, that if understood correctly (read: biblically) the phrase is fine, although it has obviously led to much disagreement as to what it actually means. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/rolleyes2.gif" alt="" /> What needs "reforming", IMHO, is the erroneous views associated with that phrase.

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John_C #24318 Mon Apr 18, 2005 7:10 PM
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There are two primary versions of the Apostles’ Creed; (1) The Old Roman Form, and (2) The Received Form which is the most popular in churches today. The oldest of these two forms is that of the Old Roman Form (thought to be copied by Marcellus in Greek, app. A.D. 336-341). Manuscript evidence suggests this form is the most original:

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1. I believe in God The Father Almighty.

2. And in Jesus Christ, his only Son, our Lord;

3. Who was born by the Holy Ghost of the Virgin Mary;

4. Was crucified under Pontius Pilate and was buried;

5. The third day he rose from the dead;

6. He ascended into heaven; and sitteth on the right hand of the Father;

7. From thence he shall come to judge the quick and the dead.

8. And in the Holy Ghost;

9. The Holy Church;

10. The forgiveness of sins;

11. The resurrection of the body (flesh).

Walter A. Elwell, Evangelical Dictionary of Theology
The additions to the Apostles’ Creed are clearly seen when its present form (The Received Form) is compared to the Old Roman Version: The Received Form is as stated: [additions are in brackets]:

Quote
1. I believe in God The Father Almighty [Maker of heaven and earth].

2. And in Jesus Christ, his only Son, our Lord;

3.Who was [conceived] by the Holy Ghost, born of the virgin Mary;

4. [Suffered] under Pontius Pilate, was crucified [dead], and buried [He descended into Hell (Hades)].

5. The third day he rose from the dead;

6. He ascended into heaven; and sitteth on the right hand of [God] the Father [Almighty];

7. From thence he shall come to judge the quick and the dead.

8. [I Believe] in the Holy Ghost;

9. The Holy [Catholic] Church [The communion of saints];

10. The forgiveness of sins;

11. The resurrection of the body (flesh);

12. [And the life everlasting].

Philip Schaff, The Creeds of Christendom (COC)
Thus, it is ok to remove it if it causes confusion. However, actually explaining its proper meaning may be a better method to teach others proper theology and the meaning of yet other verses (Eph 4:9; 1 Pet 4:4-6; Ps 16:8-10).

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Calvin wrote:

".... there is nothing strange in its being said that he descended to hell, seeing he endured the death which is inflicted on the wicked by an angry God. It is frivolous and ridiculous to object that in this way the order is perverted, it being absurd that an event which preceded burial should be placed after it. But after explaining what Christ endured in the sight of man, the Creed appropriately adds the invisible and incomprehensible judgement which he endured before God, to teach us that not only was the body of Christ given up as the price of redemption, but that there was a greater and more excellent price - that he bore in his soul the tortures of condemned and ruined man."

See Calvin's Institutes for further comments on this statement.

I believe Christ's "descent into hell" is an expression of the spiritual torment He had to endure to save us from our sins.

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But we must seek a surer explanation, apart from the Creed, of Christ’s descent into hell. The explanation given to us in God’s Word is not only holy and pious, but also full of wonderful consolation. If Christ had died only a bodily death, it would have been ineffectual. No — it was expedient at the same time for him to undergo the severity of God’s vengeance, to appease his wrath and satisfy his just judgment. For this reason, he must also grapple hand to hand with the armies of hell and the dread of everlasting death.



Wes


When I survey the wondrous cross on which the Prince of Glory died, my richest gain I count but loss and pour contempt on all my pride. - Isaac Watts
thredj #24320 Mon Apr 18, 2005 8:26 PM
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thredj said:
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...he does appeal to 1 Pet 3:19-20 saying that Christ preached to the spirits in prison

I've never really understood this verse. Could someone elaborate? Thanks

TJ,

Here is the explanation I gave a friend of mine about the meaning of I Peter 3:19:

It means that Christ, in the same Spirit in which He was made alive after His death, made proclamation (through Noah) in Noah's day to those once disobedient spirits who are (now) in prison (i.e., hell). If we look at the overall context, vv. 13–22 are written to comfort believers who are suffering for doing right. The comparison is being drawn between believers, who are reviled by the world for their good conduct, and Noah and his family. This is especially clear when Peter gets to baptism: just as Noah and his family were delivered through the floodwaters from their evil generation, so we are delivered through the baptismal waters from our evil generation, with our appeal to God from a good conscience.

So the verse has absolutely nothing to do with Christ descending into hell to preach between His death and His resurrection. How this doctrine initially entered into the church is unknown to me, but it is not biblically founded, and it certainly contradicts Jesus' words to the thief on the cross, that they would be together in Paradise that same day.


Kyle

I tell you, this man went down to his house justified.
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...and it certainly contradicts Jesus' words to the thief on the cross, that they would be together in Paradise that same day.


Very insightful. Especially the quoted part. I never looked at it that way...continual reminder that there's lots more to understand and learn, but it really helps the process by placing things in their proper context instead of getting hung up on singles.


tj
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John_C said:
All the churches I'm familiar with agrees with Pilgrim's assessment. I even know a few churches that remove the phrase he descended into hell from the creed when citing it in public worship.

Or, they could use "he descended to the dead", a phrase invented by the international translation committees in order to placate the Reformed and liberals.

Of course, that would conflict with the Calvinist view of "he descended into hell". Is the purpose of a Creed to testify to the truth of scripture against those who would deny that truth or to paper over differences?

Last edited by speratus; Tue Apr 19, 2005 12:09 AM.
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Is the purpose of a Creed to testify to the truth of scripture against those who would deny that truth or to paper over differences?
[Linked Image] I thought that was what the Scripture was for:

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2 Tim 3:16-17 Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness. That the man of God may be complete, furnished completely unto every good work.
Some of the creeds, confessions, etc. may testify to some truth, however they do not replace Scripture (The Truth; 2 Pet 1:19-21, 1 Pet 1:23). Even the WCF states,

Quote
The infallible rule of interpretation of Scripture is the Scripture itself: and therefore, when there is a question about the true and full sense of any Scripture (which is not manifold, but one), it must be searched and known by other places that speak more clearly (1.9).
In addition, to understand the truth the creeds do tell, one must first understand the language they use. To misinterpret their words is to reform any truth they do present into corrupt lies. For us to more fully understand God, His glory, His majesty, and His truth, we need Scripture (Acts 15:15; John 5:46; II Peter 1:20-21). Unfortunately, some are cultic about the creeds and not only extol the creedal words of man over the Scripture, but obliterate any truth they may contain.


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While I completely agree with the quoted passage from the WCF, I would add that Creeds perform the necessary function of refuting errors. As the Formula of Concord states,

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FOC, Epitome, Rule and Norm

] 1. We believe, teach, and confess that the sole rule and standard according to which all dogmas together with [all] teachers should be estimated and judged are the prophetic and apostolic Scriptures of the Old and of the New Testament alone, as it is written Ps. 119, 105: Thy Word is a lamp unto my feet and a light unto my path. And St. Paul: Though an angel from heaven preach any other gospel unto you, let him be accursed, Gal. 1, 8.

2] Other writings, however, of ancient or modern teachers, whatever name they bear, must not be regarded as equal to the Holy Scriptures, but all of them together be subjected to them, and should not be received otherwise or further than as witnesses, [which are to show] in what manner after the time of the apostles, and at what places, this [pure] doctrine of the prophets and apostles was preserved.

3] 2. And because directly after the times of the apostles, and even while they were still living, false teachers and heretics arose, and symbols, i. e., brief, succinct [categorical] confessions, were composed against them in the early Church, which were regarded as the unanimous, universal Christian faith and confession of the orthodox and true Church, namely, the Apostles' Creed, the Nicene Creed, and the Athanasian Creed, we pledge ourselves to them, and hereby reject all heresies and dogmas which, contrary to them, have been introduced into the Church of God.

Now, when Calvin and other Reformers proposed a new interpretation of the Creed that retained the form of the Creed but denied its substance (that Christ actually did descend into hell), the Concordists could have papered over the difference (as Calvin did) in order to maintain a false sense of unity. Instead the Concordists publicly refuted this misinterpretation of 1 Peter 3:19 in a binding confession.

Quote
FOC, SD, Christ's Descent into Hell

And since even in the ancient Christian teachers of the Church, as well as in some among our teachers, dissimilar explanations of the article concerning the descent of Christ to hell are found, we abide in like manner by the simplicity of our Christian faith [comprised in the Creed], to which Dr. Luther in his sermon, which was delivered in the castle at Torgau in the year 1533, concerning the descent of Christ to hell, has pointed us, where we confess: I believe in the Lord Christ, God's Son, our Lord, dead, buried, and descended into hell. For in this [Confession] the burial and descent of Christ to hell are distinguished as different articles; 2] and we simply believe that the entire person, God and man, after the burial descended into hell, conquered the devil, destroyed the power of hell, and took from the devil all his might. 3] We should not, however, trouble ourselves with high and acute thoughts as to how this occurred; for with our reason and our five senses this article can be comprehended as little as the preceding one, how Christ is placed at the right hand of the almighty power and majesty of God; but we are simply to believe it and adhere to the Word [in such mysteries of faith]. Thus we retain the substance [sound doctrine] and [true] consolation that neither hell nor the devil can take captive or injure us and all who believe in Christ.

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Thus the Formula of Concord ignores and contradicts Scripture. If the Apostles' Creed means that Christ actually descended into the pit of hell, then let the Apostles' Creed be anathema! We stand on Scripture.


Kyle

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speratus writes,

Now, when Calvin and other Reformers proposed a new interpretation of the Creed that retained the form of the Creed but denied its substance (that Christ actually did descend into hell), the Concordists could have papered over the difference (as Calvin did) in order to maintain a false sense of unity. Instead the Concordists publicly refuted this misinterpretation of 1 Peter 3:19 in a binding confession.


It appears the Concordists are the ones misinterpreting 1 Peter 3:19 in their binding confession.

The descension into hell as it occurs in the Apostles’ Creed signifies that on the cross Christ suffered “inexpressible anguish, pains, terrors, and hellish agonies.” This is Calvin’s explanation of the article, and this interpretation was generally adopted by the Reformed Churches.

The measure of suffering, and of obedience, is filled. All that was to be borne of the wrath of God against the sin of all the elect, had been endured even to the end. Nothing, emphatically nothing, remains to procure for us eternal righteousness and life. The Son of God had tasted all there is to be tasted in the agony of death as the expression of God’s just wrath. That is the meaning of the descension into hell.


Wes


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While I completely agree with the quoted passage from the WCF
Do you agree with the Scriptures also?

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I would add that Creeds perform the necessary function of refuting errors.
They have not done that for you so far. Every appeal to Scripture we have made YOU have been unable to biblically (from the Scripture) defend your view. Again, the confessions were never meant to be a substitute for Scripture.

Quote
Instead the Concordists publicly refuted this misinterpretation of 1 Peter 3:19 in a binding confession.

FOC, SD, Christ's Descent into Hell

And since even in the ancient Christian teachers of the Church, as well as in some among our teachers, dissimilar explanations of the article concerning the descent of Christ to hell are found, we abide in like manner by the simplicity of our Christian faith [comprised in the Creed], to which Dr. Luther in his sermon, which was delivered in the castle at Torgau in the year 1533, concerning the descent of Christ to hell, has pointed us, where we confess: I believe in the Lord Christ, God's Son, our Lord, dead, buried, and descended into hell. For in this [Confession] the burial and descent of Christ to hell are distinguished as different articles; 2] and we simply believe that the entire person, God and man, after the burial descended into hell, conquered the devil, destroyed the power of hell, and took from the devil all his might…..
May I ask where the refutation is. This is merely a statement of “some men” not an exegesis from Scripture. Where’s the Beef?

Now, let’s look “very briefly” at your confession. First, it appeals to LUTHER first and not the Scripture.

Second, Lutherans assert that Christ descended into Hell between the death of Christ and the resurrection. However, then Christ would have had to arise before the 3rd day since His whole person was in Lutheran Hell preaching—apostate doctrine!

Third, since Jesus’ did not arise before the 3rd day, if Jesus really did descend into the literal Hell then it could have only been according to the soul, but this brings other problems; (1) Christ had already committed his soul to His Father (Luke 23:46), and (2) the Scripture plainly says, “Today shalt thou be with me in paradise” (Luke 23:43).

Fourth, whereas the term “preach” (kerusoo) refers elsewhere in Scripture to the “full” proclamation of the Gospel (explicit/implicit), to the Lutheran it may now “only” refer to judgment (for these “in Hell” would have had no opportunity of salvation), since it is appointed unto man once to die and then the judgment (Heb 9:27).

Fifth, do you believe new Christians being baptized go to Hell (2 Cor 4:10; Rom 6:3-4; Col 2:12), since they are baptized in the “likeness” of Christ’s death?

Speratus, come back to the Scripture. You have been deceived once again by your confessions, which stand in opposition to the Word of God. Speratus, I appeal to you once again to come to Christ and His Word alone.

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J_Edwards #24328 Tue Apr 19, 2005 4:58 PM
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1. Did you read the part about scripture being the sole rule and standard? Is no appeal to the fathers permitted under the Reformed view of sola scriptura?
2-4. Does the following answer all your questions?

Quote
The Timing of Christ's Descent to Hell
in Relation to the Apostles' Creed by Kenneth L. Wenzel


Those who rationalize the hypostatic union of Christ often stray from the Bible's simple statements. Quenstedt follows the antirationalism of the hypostatic union as any Bible reader should, and therefore he writes this for us:

"Christ, the God-man, and therefore His entire person (and hence not only according to His soul, or only according to His body), after the reunion of soul and body, descended to the very place of the damned, and to the devils and the damned manifested Himself as conqueror. For the descent, since it is a personal action, cannot be ascribed otherwise than to the entire person of the God man. And, as in the Apostles' Creed it is said of the entire God man that He suffered, was crucified, dead, and buried, so also it is said of the same that He descended into hell." The descent is, very naturally, predicated of Christ, the God man, i.e., it is taught that Christ, the God-man, was for a time in hell; but the descent itself is predicated only of the human nature of Christ. "Christ descended into hell, not according to His divine nature; for, according to this, He was in hell before, filling all things through His dominion… Therefore, Christ descended, according to His human nature. For the predications qanatwqei\j sarki/ and zw|opoihqeij, belong to the human nature alone. "...

Verse 19, as just noted, also has something to say for our understanding of the timing in the Apostles' Creed. The verse begins with e0nw{| to tell us that Jesus descended in His glorified state. It is a dative of circumstance. poreuqei/j is an aorist participle pointing out that Jesus really completed His act of going. Where did He go? fulakh~| means "prison," and it is another word for hell as noted in Matthew 5:25 and II Peter 2:4&5. It is also a very real place and not as many of the Reformed teach. They claim that Christ's descensus is only to be taken in a figurative sense and time it as part of His humiliation. This is still their understanding as many others do with the timing of the descensus in the Apostles' Creed. Rufinus (ca. 390 A.D.) timed the descensus of the Apostles' Creed in apposition to the burial. He talks as if the descensus is an unnecessary redundancy in the formula.
What did Jesus do in hell? He went to khrussei/n or to proclaim or to herald. Colossians 2:15 clearly describes how Jesus preached. He did not go to preach the Gospel and give the spirits' another chance to be saved as some interpret (Origen, Marcion). Rather, Jesus went to publicly shame hell. The Lord triumphed over them in the ancient manner. He paraded the defeated enemies of God and man before Himself. Paul's comments on Christ's descensus are important. He talks about a time of triumph and glory and not one of suffering and pain. Paul, then, as also Peter, by inspiration directs us to time Christ's descent to hell with the Lord's exaltation when we confess the Apostles' Creed.
Before summarizing the conclusions of the first section, it was stated above that more should be said on the timing of the vivificatio of the Savior. When was Jesus made alive in His glory to descend is the question. The Bible points out that Jesus' spirit at the time of His death went into the hands of His Father (Lk. 23:46). It also declares that on the same day of His death Jesus was in paradise (Lk. 23:43). In addition, we have every reason to claim that Jesus lay in the grave for the full time He predicted (Mt. 12:40, 26:61, 27:40&63; Mark 8:31; Jn 2:19&20). Finally, there is Peter's record that makes it clear that Jesus was vivified and descended for a very short time before he appeared to man. Does this mean then, that we should change the Apostles' Creed to proclaim "on the third day He arose again from the dead; He descended into hell?" Indeed, there is no need for such a radical change. But we should remember that the term "resurrection" is used either restrictedly or comprehensively. The Apostles' Creed uses the latter. Quenstedt comments to this point as he writes:

The moment of time of the descent is according to I Peter 3:19, the time that intervened between the quickening and the resurrection of Christ, properly so called. To the assertion, that the descent preceded the resurrection, and therefore did not succeed the vivifying, Holl, (668) replies: "A distinction must be made between an outward and an inner resurrection. The former is the going forth from the sepulchre, and the outward appearance to men, and is described in the Apostles' Creed; the latter is the quickening itself."

5. Mark 16:16

Wes #24329 Tue Apr 19, 2005 7:44 PM
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Some theologians think Christ went to Tartarus to proclaim his victory but not to release them. This was the holding tank for those angels who cohabited with women in Genesis.

Others think He went to Abraham's bosom to proclaim His victory over Satan to all the Old Testament saints including the thief on the Cross.

The other view is that He did go to Hades to proclaim His victory and give all who died without the Salvation of Sacrifices in the Covenant, a second chance to accept His Gospel. (They never heard it or the Law the first time: i.e.: A chinaman who lived at the time of Abraham.) This would include Socrates, Plato, etc.

From Luke 16 we see that Sheol had two compartments which were separated by a great gulf.

#24330 Tue Apr 19, 2005 8:33 PM
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Thank you for the entertainment. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/jester.gif" alt="" /> No you, or should I say Wenzel, did not answer my questions according to Scripture. Here are just a few more points:

Quote
What did Jesus do in hell? He went to khrussei/n or to proclaim or to herald. Colossians 2:15 clearly describes how Jesus preached. He did not go to preach the Gospel and give the spirits' another chance to be saved as some interpret (Origen, Marcion).
The preacher here is very clear as in 2 Peter 2:5 Noah is described as “a preacher of righteousness.” Furthermore, as 1 Peter 4:4-6 reveals the “dead” to whom the gospel was preached were not yet dead when it was preached unto them, since part of the preaching was “that they might be judged according to men in the flesh.” This could only take place during their life on earth. As Berkhof comments, “the common Protestant interpretation of this passage is that the Spirit of Christ preached through Noah to the disobedient that lived before the flood, who were spirits in prison when Peter wrote, and therefore could be distinguished as thus.”

Quote
Before summarizing the conclusions of the first section, it was stated above that more should be said on the timing of the vivificatio of the Savior. When was Jesus made alive in His glory to descend is the question. The Bible points out that Jesus' spirit at the time of His death went into the hands of His Father (Lk. 23:46). It also declares that on the same day of His death Jesus was in paradise (Lk. 23:43). In addition, we have every reason to claim that Jesus lay in the grave for the full time He predicted (Mt. 12:40, 26:61, 27:40&63; Mark 8:31; Jn 2:19&20). Finally, there is Peter's record that makes it clear that Jesus was vivified and descended for a very short time before he appeared to man.
Since the rest of what Wenzel wrote depends on his summary may I just ask, "Where in the Scripture does it say that Christ descended for only a short time?" Indeed, does not the Scripture emphatically state;

Quote
Mark 16:8-10 And they went out quickly, and fled from the sepulchre; for they trembled and were amazed: neither said they any thing to any man; for they were afraid. Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had cast seven devils. And she went and told them that had been with him, as they mourned and wept.
Now if Jesus just finished parading through Hell with His victory procession, Mary could not have been first!

Either the Bible is a lie or else Wenzel and yourself have failed to read it once again? Sorry, Speratus, I’ll stick with the Scripture and not a slice and dice man-made isogesis to attempt to correct Scripture with a misinterpreted creed.


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#24331 Wed Apr 20, 2005 7:12 PM
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From Luke 16 we see that Sheol had two compartments which were separated by a great gulf.

How do you establish that Abraham's bosom is in Hades/Sheol?


Kyle

I tell you, this man went down to his house justified.
J_Edwards #24332 Sun Apr 24, 2005 7:58 AM
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J_Edwards said:

The preacher here is very clear as in 2 Peter 2:5 Noah is described as “a preacher of righteousness.” Furthermore, as 1 Peter 4:4-6 reveals the “dead” to whom the gospel was preached were not yet dead when it was preached unto them, since part of the preaching was “that they might be judged according to men in the flesh.” This could only take place during their life on earth. As Berkhof comments, “the common Protestant interpretation of this passage is that the Spirit of Christ preached through Noah to the disobedient that lived before the flood, who were spirits in prison when Peter wrote, and therefore could be distinguished as thus.”

You're appealing to Berkhof and the "Protestant" fathers? Very well, here's a father that does not agree.

Quote
Kretzmann's Popular Commentary of the Bible For the same reason the apostle adds: For to this end was the Gospel preached also to them that are (now) dead, that they might be judged in the flesh indeed after the manner of men, but might live in the spirit after the manner of God. This statement has no connection with the fact given in chap. 3, 19, but belongs into this connection. To certain people that are now dead the Gospel was preached during their life, they became partakers of its wonderful blessings, in order that they, although subject to the general curse of death according to their mortal body, yet might live in the spirit, so far as their soul was concerned, and that after the manner of God, that is, in a spiritual, divine, glorified existence, until the day when God would reunite their bodies with their souls. Thus the purpose of the preaching of the Gospel was realized in the case of those that died in the Lord. The connection of thought, then, is this: While death does not remove the blasphemer from the final Judgment and condemnation, it confirms the hope of the Christians that their souls, which are safe in the hands of God, will be reunited with their bodies on the last day and enjoy everlasting salvation and glory in the presence of God.


Quote
J EdwardsSince the rest of what Wenzel wrote depends on his summary may I just ask, "Where in the Scripture does it say that Christ descended for only a short time?" Indeed, does not the Scripture emphatically state;

Quote
Mark 16:8-10 And they went out quickly, and fled from the sepulchre; for they trembled and were amazed: neither said they any thing to any man; for they were afraid. Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had cast seven devils. And she went and told them that had been with him, as they mourned and wept.
Now if Jesus just finished parading through Hell with His victory procession, Mary could not have been first!

Your earlier objections were quite good but now you seem to grasping at straws. You're putting Mary in the same class as the dead and saying that Christ can not accomplish His descent into hell in a brief timeframe?

#24333 Sun Apr 24, 2005 8:36 AM
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Your earlier objections were quite good but now you seem to grasping at straws. You're putting Mary in the same class as the dead and saying that Christ can not accomplish His descent into hell in a brief timeframe?
Speratus, the Scripture, not ME, not Straws, and not Professor Wittenberg, but the Scripture says that “Jesus appeared first to Mary Magdalene.” This is a Scriptural argument—deal with it! Have YOUR Confession and others brought you to the place where YOU will blatantly DENY Scripture? <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/Ponder.gif" alt="" />


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