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#47502
Sat Jan 21, 2012 10:09 PM
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It appears as if there is pretty good evidence that the greek says 'women', not 'wives of deacons'.
Why did Paul threw this verse in. He is not talking about a 3rd office, nor deaconesses; but what do we do with understanding this verse?
John Chaney
"having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in your faith . . ." Colossians 2:7
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Annie Oakley
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Annie Oakley
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"Women in like manner must be grave, not slanderers, temperate, faithful in all things." [ASV] It would seem that the subject is the demeanor and behavior of the women of the church. No office. It also reiterates some of the requirements of Bishop as well. Might it not be reasonable to think that these stated attributes be desirable in all of the Church? Not slanderers? Temperate? Faithful? I take it as a reminder of what we all are responsible to do.
The Chestnut Mare
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Needs to get a Life
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In the notes for 1 Tim. 3:11 the Reformation Study Bible says the following. their wives. Lit. “women” This verse abruptly interrupts the section on deacons. Its meaning is contested. The “women” are probably either the wives of the deacons or themselves deacons. The abruptness of the insertion probably reflects Paul’s concern that women, in particular, have not fared well at the hands of false teachers (2:14; 5:15). Seeing how the topic is “deacons” it would be very strange to change the topic abruptly, and then change back to the topic of deacons in the next few verses. I would also find it a little strange if the verse is talking about women deacons, mainly because the verse before and after talk about men. Therefore, I would say that “women” in this case are the wives of the deacons themselves. I have heard some who believe that 1 Tim.3:11 refers to “women deacons” quote from Romans 16:1 saying that Phoebe was a deacon. However, the Greek word in which we get the word “deacon” can also be translated “servant”. Versions such as NIV, NLT use “deacon”. While other versions such as KJV, NKJV, ASV, NASB (footnotes “deaconess”), use “servant”. Thinking about the context of Romans 16:1, I don’t see any clear indication from the context that the office of “deacon” is meant here. In fact, when I think of the qualities that Paul says that Phoebe has; I see qualities that all Christians should try to emulate. Looking at what William Henriksen and Simon J. Kistemaker in their New Testament Commentary says concerning this matter. He seems to be saying that the “women” are “deacon assistants”, who have the same qualities “dignified, no slanderers, temperate, reliable in all matters. Tom
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Annie Oakley
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Annie Oakley
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Out of curiosity John, why do you ask the question?
The Chestnut Mare
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Our men's study was on that passage yesterday. We are going through 1 Timothy in our study. Most of the translations reads 'wives of deacons', so many assume that is what it says in the Greek.
Hendriksen has a different view on it. Poorly translating him, he sees these women as not wives, nor deaconesses, nor a third office. Since it is only one verse, and not a passage or series of verses on the topic, he says Paul is making a side note here, like in parenthesis. He is saying that women who have been given responsibility serving in the church,just as the officers, requires a certain level of qualifications and character traits. He does not see it as an universal statement.
I'm sure Jeff can do a much better job in explaining Hendriksen, and whether he agrees with him on this verse.
John Chaney
"having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in your faith . . ." Colossians 2:7
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Head Honcho
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John,
Actually, you did a good job summarizing Hendriksen's position. 1) He rejects any notion of a third office of Deaconess, nor is the text 2) referring to Deacons' wives, nor 3) to women in general.
On the whole, methinks Hendriksen has the proper understanding of the text. On these points, my view is as follows:
1) Paul deals with with how women are to conduct themselves in the Church in 1Tim 2:9-13. There is no mention of an office of Deaconess anywhere. Men were entrusted with the administration of the Church. Yes, Phebe is often brought up as supporting the office of Deaconess, but the word diaconon (diaconia) isn't restricted to Deacon but also means "service" or "one who does service" in general. Phebe was a woman who served the Church in some capacity as did many other women, but not as an ordained office bearer.
2) I differ slightly with Hendriksen on this point as I think the construction of the grammar would allow the wives of Deacons to be included. They in all probability assisted their husbands in their work and thus Paul's comments as to how they were to conduct themselves is appropriate. I do agree, however, that v. 11 should be taken as referring to Deacons' wives but not exclusively nor even primarily. It seems to me that given the context of vv. 1-13, where the subject is in regard to the administration of the Church, and given the grammatical structure of the Greek, specific women are being addressed; all women who are given to ministry within the Church.
3) As mentioned in #2, the context must rule out the view that all women in general are to be understood. Paul has already dealt with all women in the previous chapter, 2:9-15. Paul then shifts gears, so to speak, and in chapter 3 begins a new topic concerning the Church and those who are appointed to do works of ministry, either through an ordained office; Elder and Deacon, or women who assist in various and important tasks in addition to those under the authority of the office bearers. Lenski makes a good case on this particular aspect exegetically. And Patrick Fairbairn, who also is in basic agreement with what I wrote above, Hendriksen and Lenski, has some very good insights as well.
simul iustus et peccator
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Needs to get a Life
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Pilgrim
I have a question related to the Greek. Although I am not sure it makes a difference at all in the discussion. I wonder if there is any difference in the how the Byzantine (I think that is what it is called) as opposed to the Alexandrian text are used in 1 Tim. 3:11?
Tom
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Pilgrim
I have a question related to the Greek. Although I am not sure it makes a difference at all in the discussion. I wonder if there is any difference in the how the Byzantine (I think that is what it is called) as opposed to the Alexandrian text are used in 1 Tim. 3:11? They are the same.
simul iustus et peccator
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