I had heard rumours that this passage of Scripture, is doubted by most scholars. However, until now I have never looked into it. I uncovered a few things.
The Textus Receptus and the majority of Greek text include the passage; however there are English versions that either omit it, or put it in brackets. Reading more about it, I am finding that despite trying to find evidence that it actually belongs in the original writing of the book of John, most scholars believe it was not part of the original text.
DA Carson for example says:
“Despite the best efforts . . . to prove that this narrative was originally part of John’s Gospel, the evidence is against [them], and modern English versions are right to rule it off from the rest of the text (NIV) or to relegate it to a footnote (RSV).” (The Gospel According to John, 333)
Over the years, I have heard many sermons that mentioned this particular passage and I think I have even used this passage a few times in the past also, without questioning it.
Seeing the passage is used in the Textus Receptus; I can just imagine (do not know for sure) that KJOists try to use this arguement to prove that the KJV is the only true English translation.
I have two questions.
1. Should we use this passage in the same way we use other passages that are not disputed?
2. If I hear it being used, what should I do?
Tom
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