I've read one and got confused. I'll read them, but do you know if any of them respond specifically to the problems brought up?

In I Cor 13, if "that which is perfect" doesn't refer to the Bible, and refers to the second coming of Christ, then doesn't that mean that tongues won't go away until Christ comes?
and if it is the completion of the Bible, that what does it mean about the knowledge, and especially "then I shall know just as I also am known"?! *confused*

I Cor 13
8Love never fails. But whether there are prophecies, they will fail; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will vanish away. 9For we know in part and we prophesy in part. 10But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away.
11When I was a child, I spoke as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child; but when I became a man, I put away childish things. 12For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known.

Romans 8:29 (in Arminian): For whom He foreknew, He also [foreknew] to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren.