Is it possible that over the years of Church history, some verses were translated with a male bias? Phoebe, a Christian woman whom we find in Romans 16:1 spoken of as any common "servant" attached to a church body, yet, may have been someone gifted by the Holy Spirit to preach the gospel, if we read what the apostle originally said in the Greek. "Diaconon" can (from what I have read) be translated "deacon" or preacher of the word. Why is it simply translated "servant" in most translations of the Scripture? Especially in light of the same Greek word used to designate her was applied to all the apostles and Jesus; " Now I say that Jesus Christ was a minister (diaconon) of the circumcision" (Rom. 15:8). "Who then is Paul, and who is Apollos, but ministers (diaconoi) by whom ye believed" (1 Cor. 3:5). "Our sufficiency is of God; who also hath made us able ministers (diaconous) of the new testament" (2 Cor. 3:6). "In all things approving ourselves as the ministers (diaconoi) of God" (6:4).
"The Lord gave the word, and great was the company of those that published it" (Ps. 68:11). In the original Hebrew it is, "Great was the company of women publishers, or women evangelists." Why is the female aspect left out in modern translations? And what is the implications if indeed these verses have been mistranslated because of a "male bias"?