J_Edwards misquotes me by omitting the preceding sentence, "According to your logic, there is a Christ who is incapable of sin and a Christ who is capable of sin (i.e., two persons."
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Speratus said; Christ the Man is incapable of holiness since holiness is purely a divine attribute. And we are lost because we can never be holy. In His state of humiliation, Christ did not always use His divine powers (Phil. 2:5-8), but He never became capable of sin. He could never deny Himself (2 Tim. 2:13).
So you deny the holiness of Jesus—the man. How sad that you have no true Redeemer.
No, I am referring to the natural consequences of Pilgrim holding to peccability of Christ.
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J Edwards continues IF holiness is ONLY a Divine attribute (only owned by God, not man, even Jesus) then WHY does the Scripture give us mere mortals commands to be holy and even call us holy? (Exodus 22:31, Isaiah 62:12, Luke 1:70, Romans 11:16, 12:1-2, 1 Corinthians 7:14, Hebrews 3:1, 1 Peter 1:15-16, etc.). Have you ever read what the Apostle Paul wrote in?
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Colossians 1:21-22:
And you, being in time past alienated and enemies in your mind in your evil works, yet now hath he reconciled in the body of his flesh through death, to present you holy and without blemish and unreproveable before him:
Colossians 3:12:
Put on therefore, as God's elect, holy and beloved, a heart of compassion, kindness, lowliness, meekness, longsuffering;
Jesus was/is/and will always be holy, however this does not mean He was never legitimately tempted not to be holy. Christ’s temptations were real, not imagined.
Correct and exactly my point!
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J Edwards misstates Now, what you have declared is that YOU do not have a holy Redeemer. However, Jesus, the MAN, had to be holy in order to redeem any from sin (Hebrews 7:26), but this YOU deny by saying, “Christ the Man is incapable of holiness since holiness is purely a divine attribute,” thus improperly separating Christ’s two natures and placing more emphasis on His Divine, rather than balancing His Divine and Human natures. However, the Scripture states that the Mediator between God and man must be sinless. Christ, who was to offer Himself unto God as a sacrifice for the sins of His elect, must be Himself free from sin—He must be HOLY (Hebrews 4:15; 1 Peter 2:22).
No, I am saying that Christ is holy and incapable of sin.
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[J Edwards quoting Hodge A sinful Saviour from sin is an impossibility. He could not have access to God. He could not be a sacrifice for sins; and He could not be the source of holiness and eternal life to his people. This sinlessness of our Lord, however, does not amount to absolute impeccability. It was not a non potest peccare. If He was a true man He must have been capable of sinning. That He did not sin under the greatest provocation; that when He was reviled He blessed; when He suffered He threatened not; that He was dumb, as a sheep before its shearers, is held up to us as an example. Temptation implies the possibility of sin. If from the constitution of his person it was impossible for Christ to sin, then his temptation was unreal and without effect, and He cannot sympathize with his people.
When Hodge says that Christ must be capable of sin to be a true man, he is in error. The capability to sin is not of the substance of man. In our glorified state, we will continue to be men but we will be incapable of sin.
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J Edwards commends the WCF It may assist you to read the WCF and prayerfully understand it
Where does the WCF address the peccability of Christ?
