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olpo25 said:
In the case of evaluating God's own decision to evict lepers from camp/ceremonial worship back in the books of Moses, however, how than does one explain why Jesus (God) was not only allowed to touch these people, the same people God Himself had essentially deemed social outcasts Himself 1000 or more years earlier, but than goes onto to discipline the Jews making the good Samaritan a positive example during such?
First of all, welcome to the Discussion Board! [Linked Image]

Sorry for jumping in a bit late on this discussion. Paul and Robin have already addressed the truth that in Christ ALL has been fulfilled (cf. Matt 5:17). See also: Toward a Theology of the State, by John Frame.

As to Christ touching lepers, I regret I don't have time to extrapolate on this subject as it is one I have done considerable study and one which I have found most interesting and edifying. But let me just say that in Isaiah 53:4-


Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows; yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.


the Hebrew word for "stricken" is the same root word for leprosy. Thus, when Christ touched a leper, He fulfilled that which was spoken by Isaiah, i.e., He became a leper for us (substitution) (2Cor 5:21). See my sermon here for more: The Great Physician.

In His grace,

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simul iustus et peccator

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