Covenant, or for whomever else might be able to answer this question for me-

For the ancient Jews having ever consumed any of the forbidden meats/animals, was there a legitimite classification of OT/Biblical "Defilement" in such cases, in its honest term, or were the food laws given in Leviticus simply a case of clean/unclean distinction? I know for a fact that God had to have had a spiritual intent by having listed the creatures He did, yet with the repeated theme running throughout the OT, despite how much Jesus' Own Word about this makes 100% sense once we get to the NT, there would have to be a concrete classification of previous definition prescribing the consumation of such to be only that of uncleaness, not defilement itself.

Is there is any account whereby God said if a person ate this or that unclean animal they were "Officially defiled" in the OT, I would appreciate getting that passage because it would stand in contradiction to Jesus' message concerning such in the Gospels despite the fact Christ's message would make 100% sense over the other, if you know what I mean.

Furthermore, and finally, there is the issue of Daniel 1:8, the mentality of which would stand in near total contradiction to Paul's teachings despite the heart's message/common sense viewpoint regarding such (In favor of Paul, clearly).

Here again, if anyone can help I would definitely appreciate it.

Thanks so much, everyone, for your willingness to help