The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Continuity in Old and NT

I have already written to you that I will not get involved in any further 'debates' on baptism. There are myriad discussions/threads on this board that expand years of such discussions. And very few resulted in anything positive. This is not to be understood as a ban on such discussions on this board. What I am clearly saying is that "I" personally will not entertain any such discussions.

Now, to answer your question... I suspect due to your misunderstanding or lack of sufficient knowledge concerning the "covenant of grace" and/or covenant theology in general and more than likely a presupposition that the "NEW Covenant" is basically a different covenant you do not comprehend the continuity involved. Since I firmly believe that baptism has superseded circumcision as the "sign of the covenant", it must be the case that every Jew that infant and children assumed that this "sign" would still include them. In fact, it would have been expected that such a radical change to exclude infants and children from receiving the covenant sign would are require a clear command and explanation of such a change. No such command is to be found anywhere in the NT. The emphasis in the NT is NOT the exclusion of covenant children but rather upon the inclusion of Gentiles into the covenant, focusing upon, as should be expected, upon the conversion of adults. The NT (covenant) is not one of EXclusion but of INclusion; Gentiles and females vs. Jews and males. The family structure is not abrogated but affirmed and strengthened as well and the universality and spirtuality of the New Covenant.

I am bowing out of this discussion but others, if there is any interest may continue.