Dear Pilgrim,<br><br>IRT:<br>"1 Corinthians 4:7 'For who maketh thee to differ [from another]? and what hast thou that thou didst not receive? now if thou didst receive [it], why dost thou glory, as if thou hadst not received [it]?'<br><br>There appears to be a clear contradiction between what you believe/stated and what the inspired Apostle has written. If, as you say, all men have received an "equal measure of enabling 'grace' then that which makes them to differ is their will and or willingness to cooperate with that grace!"<br><br>There is no contradiction. The way in which we differ is that we are saved and have the Holy Spirit living in us (a thing which God obviously did). This is not speaking of how men differ from each other with regards to how they will receive God's grace.<br><br>IRT:<br>"Again, your view denigrates grace and relegates it to a mere 'influence' which does not actually save in and of itself. Man's will is the actual and proximate cause of salvation. Your position is indefensible."<br><br>Grace is not mere influence, but I compare it to a lifeboat sent to drowning men. It is true that a decision by the man is necessary for him to be saved (for God has ordained it be so), but whether they accept or reject their salvation, it is still grace that saves. So man does not bring about his own salvation, but the acceptance of God's grace is the only way that he can in any sense 'save himself' (Acts 2:40).<br><br>It makes little difference to me what churches did what to who's proposals, the Bible is very clear on the matter. There are conditions man must meet if he is to be saved, and there are conditions to meet if he is to remain in God's grace. Notable examples of those who fell from grace by rejecting it and following another gospel appear in Galatians 5.<br><br><br>In Christ,<br>Josh