In reply to:
[color:"blue"]Exactly right. God elects His own according to His foreknowledge.

"Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ..." (1 Peter 1:2)


You continue to use terms, e.g., "foreknowledge" in an unbiblical fashion. I have challenged you on several occasions to give evidence that "foreknowledge", according to your use of the term, means "prescience", i.e., "knowledge of raw facts beforehand" and that only. Clearly, this mitigates against the very definition of Deity. There are several fundamental questions which need answering on your part if you are going to espouse this erroneous view, which seems to be the undergirding of your position. Some of these questions are:
    [*]Where is the origin of these "raw facts" which God foresaw and upon which He determined (if you are even able to affirm that God does or can infallibly determine anything? If they occurred outside of Himself, how does this square with His Omnipresence?[*]If there are "raw facts" which God must perceive which He has not preordained, then how does this square with His attribute of Omniscience? For your definition would imply that there are some "raw facts" which were unknown unto God at some point.[*]If after perceiving what men will do (again where are these men that He sees?) He then determines what will be (a self-contradictory statement), how does this square with His Omnipotence? For God would then be the Sovereign Who determines all things, but only one who simply iterates what has already happened due to the "free-will" decisions of men.[*]And again I ask, if God foresees that a man has already made a particular choice concerning something and consequently, on the basis of what God has foreseen, does this not destroy your doctrine of free-will? For when this act takes place temporally, is not this same man theoretically able to not choose that which was foreseen, if one believes as you do, that man is not forced in making decisions? Could he not just as freely choose that which was contrary to what foresaw?[*]How does the biblical reality of prophesy exist and square with your view of "foreknowledge" and "free-will"? How is it possible in your indeterministic theology that anything is certainly fixed, immutable and will infallibly take place in all its details?[/LIST]
In His Sovereign Grace,

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simul iustus et peccator

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