Hello. I am a new poster. I have a question that I was hoping somebody could answer for me. In Romans 2, Paul says that God will repay every man according to what he has done. He says that all those who endeavor to do good will receive eternal for not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified. Now, I have always interpreted this as meaning that anyone who lives a life of perfect obedience will be declared righteous for God's judgment is just. However, no one can live a life of perfect "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." I still interpret these verses this way. But I'm having a bit of a problem answering an RC claim on these verses. The argument I've heard is that when Paul refers to the self-righteous Jew in the previous verses, he tells them that because of their unrepentance they are storing up wrath for themselves. They don't realize that God's kindness leads them to repentance. So, the argument goes, those who endeavor to do good are those who have repentant hearts. They perform these works out of "faith and repentance." Therefore, these works are meritorious because they are justified by them. They feel these verses reinforce their position. How do I answer this?
There are quite a number of articles that deal with the doctrine of "Sola Fide", Justification by Faith Alone you can find here: Sola Fide: the Doctrine of Justification.
Perhaps one of the best that would be most apt to answer your question as it relates to the arguments raised by the RCC is this one here: The Biblical Teaching of Justification, by William Webster.
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In Romans 2, Paul says that God will repay every man according to what he has done. He says that all those who endeavor to do good will receive eternal for not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified. Now, I have always interpreted this as meaning that anyone who lives a life of perfect obedience will be declared righteous for God's judgment is just.
What you might consider is that Paul is NOT teaching a "works righteousness" salvation (aka: synergism), but rather he is showing the impossibility of anyone being saved who relies on their keeping of the law. As you have concluded, and which Paul makes so very clear, (cf. Gal 2:16; 3:2-12; Rom 3:19, 20, 27; 4:2, 13-15), no one is justified by the works of the law; even those good works done in faith by grace. No work is meritorious except the work of Christ which is imputed to the one who believes.
Thanks Pilgrim. You know, I posted that rather quickly and I see that I should have edited myself. I think I sounded differently then what I wanted to convey. I know that Paul isn't teaching a works righteousness system. What I mean is that I've always interpreted these verses as meaning that anyone who lives a completely perfectly life will be justified. However, Paul concludes that no one can live perfectly. As he says in chapter 3, all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. And so, we must rely on the completed work of Christ instead of our own righteousness. I guess what's hard for me to answer is in the immediate context of these verses, Paul speaks of the Jews having an "unrepentant" heart. So the RC claim here is that if someone has a "repentant" heart, these works would justify. Now, I know that is absurd, but I'm trying to find a way to answer it. They say that the person who "endeavors after good" is the one with a repentant heart and is performing these works in faith and receives eternal life. Therefore they are meritorious. Now, this sounds like a lot of rhetoric to me. I just wanted to see if anyone had an idea on how to answer it using this immediate context. Thanks again.
Actually, you already have the answer you need and are looking for; to assert that good works done in faith with a repentant heart merit justification is to contradict what Paul teaches elsewhere, i.e., justification is by faith ALONE apart from works of the law of any kind. However, I have included a section from William Hendriksen's N.T. Commentary on Romans, (Vol. I, pp. 95, 96), for your perusal which hopefully will reinforce this truth:
12, 13. For all who have sinned in ignorance of the law [or: apart from the law] will perish even though they did not know the law [or: will perish apart from the law]; and all who have sinned knowing the law [or: under the law] will be judged by the law. For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous in God’s sight, but it is the doers of the law who will be pronounced righteous.
The statement that every person will be judged according to his deeds (verses 6-11) receives clarification and augmentation in the present passage. The apostle underscores the fact that what counts both now and in the day of the Grand Assize is not whether people have possessed the law or have heard it read to them in the synagogue or elsewhere, but whether they have conducted their lives in harmony with its requirements.
Those who have sinned in ignorance of the law — cf. I Cor. 9:21 — in other words, the Gentiles, will perish even though they did not know the law. That by using the word “law” the apostle is thinking especially of the Pentateuch, even more precisely, of the law of the Ten Commandments, is clear from verses 21, 22. Cf. Rom. 13:8-10. They will perish because of their sins. And, on the other hand, those who were privileged to possess and/or to hear the law must not think that this fact as such will be of any benefit to them before God. On the contrary, disobeying the law which is being constantly dinned into one’s ears will make condemnation so much more severe. Not those who merely hear, but those who hear and do will be pronounced righteous.
A word of caution is necessary at this point. It must be borne in mind that at this juncture the apostle is not drawing a contrast between justification by faith and justification by the works of the law. Those who would so interpret what he is saying would be making Paul contradict himself, for the very purpose of this letter is to show that a person is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Christ. No, the antithesis he is discussing here in 2: 12, 13 is that between two groups of people: (a) those who not only hear but also obey, and (b) those who merely hear. Cf. Matt. 7:24-29. It is, of course, the former who are pronounced righteous by God. Cf. Lev. 18:5, “If you obey them [my statutes] you shall live.”
So interpreted, that rule holds even for those believers who are living in the new dispensation. Precisely because they have been delivered from the curse of the law, they are all the more deeply obliged not only to hear but also to obey the gospel. By their good deeds, resulting from gratitude, they show that by God’s sovereign grace and power they have given their hearts to him. In him alone do they place their trust. From him they have received their status of being righteous in God’s eyes.
When Paul discusses the antithesis: justification by faith or by works he will make very clear that it is not by works but by faith that a person is justified (Rom. 3:20, 28; 4:2; Gal. 2:16; 3:11, 12). See on 3:20, 28.
So the RC claim here is that if someone has a "repentant" heart, these works would justify.
First, welcome to the forum. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/hello.gif" alt="" />
Second, if I have understood your question correctly, I would assert to the R.C., "How can a person have a repentant heart without Christ?" Repentance itself is a gift of God (2 Tim 2:24-26). How can something be earned and yet be a gift? The heart is deceitful above all things who can know it? Ask them, "What is good according to God's standards?" God commands more than "endeavoring after good"--i.e. perfection. Additionally, doing good works have no power to forgive those past works, which were not perfect.
What the RC is asserting is impossible--works do not save. Since a person is saved "unto" good works (Eph 2:8-10), it is by grace, faith, and then the works. As you know, true works don't save, but are the results of a true salvation. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/bigglasses.gif" alt="" />
I thank everyone for their responses. I actually was reading a quote from Marshall's "The Gospel Mystery of Sanctification" and I think he summed it up beautifully:
"I have noticed that from this passage the Church of Rome endeavors to establish the merit of works, and of justification by means of works...But if we take the words in their plain and obvious import, and understand the Apostle in this place as announcing the terms of the law, in order to prove to the Jews the necesiity of having recourse to grace, and of yielding to the goodness and forebearance of God,leading them to repentance, while he assures them that 'not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified,' then the whole train of his discourse is clear and consistent."
I think that answers my question perfectly. Thanks everyone for your insights. I hope to be a regular on here. :-)
I thank everyone for their responses. BTW, as you can see, I changed my username. rh9, after 3 whole posts, is now tuliprom9. It's not as if I believed the RC claim, of course, I was just having a difficult time refuting it. But, I think Marshall answered it beautifully (Check my previous post under "rh9.")
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to the Discussion Board, rh9.![[Linked Image]](http://www.the-highway.com/pilgrim/pil_sig2.gif)
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