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#57129 Thu Nov 11, 2021 9:26 PM
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I've been using a NASB Bible for 40 or so years. I don't know how this has not come to my attention before, but my Bible flipflops three verses. (Matthew 21:29-31)

NASB (my version - having to type as I cannot find it online)

29) "And he answered and said, 'I will sir'; and he did not go. 30) "And he came to the second and said the same thing. But he answered and said, 'I will not'; yet he afterward regretted it and went. 31) "Which of the two did the will of his father?" They said, "The latter." Jesus said to them, "Truly I say to you that the tax gatherers and harlots will get into the kingdom of God before you.

NASB 1995, (which has the same sequence as the ESV NKJ, KJV, & NIV)

29And he answered, ‘I will not’; but afterward he regretted it and went. 30The man came to the second and said the same thing; and he answered, ‘I will, sir’; but he did not go. 31Which of the two did the will of his father?” They *said, “The first.” Jesus *said to them, “Truly I say to you that the tax collectors and prostitutes will get into the kingdom of God before you.

How did that happen, and did the NASB folks give a reason on the change?


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Hi John, a quick check here: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mat.+21&version=NKJV;NASB;ASV;ESV;RSV shows NKJ, NASB, ASV, ESV, and RSV all have the order of your second quote (and you can check many other versions there as well). At the bottom of that page, it shows the NASB copyright from 1960 through 2020, and the edition being used is the 2020.

What edition is your NASB? Could it be just a single printing which reversed the text? It appears to be deliberate, rather than accidental, as in your reversed version, verse 31 correctly identifies "the latter" (or second), whereas the other versions correctly identify "the first".


Meta4

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The 1977 NASB version. I have 3 NASB Bibles using the 1977 version, and they all say the same. It was changed in the 1995 version (edition).


John Chaney

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Tom Offline
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John

I need to admit that I am not really a fan of the NASB. I realize it is considered to be one of the most literal English Bible versions.
However, there are times that I believe it uses the wrong word when the Greek can be rendered a few different words. Context determining what English word should be used.
For example: in 1 Tim. 3:11; the discussion on deacons, the Greek can be either rendered "wives", or "women".
The NASB, uses the word "women", where as all other Formal Equivalent translations that I am aware of use the word "wives".
So what is the problem?
The NASB, makes it look like "women" can be deacons in the sense that the chapter is talking about. However, the context almost certainly is not talking about "women deacons". It is talking about "deacons wives".

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Originally Posted by Tom
John

I need to admit that I am not really a fan of the NASB. I realize it is considered to be one of the most literal English Bible versions.
However, there are times that I believe it uses the wrong word when the Greek can be rendered a few different words. Context determining what English word should be used.
For example: in 1 Tim. 3:11; the discussion on deacons, the Greek can be either rendered "wives", or "women".
The NASB, uses the word "women", where as all other Formal Equivalent translations that I am aware of use the word "wives".
So what is the problem?
The NASB, makes it look like "women" can be deacons in the sense that the chapter is talking about. However, the context almost certainly is not talking about "women deacons". It is talking about "deacons wives".

Tom

Tom, although I have mixed feelings about the NASB, I am most certainly in agreement with you on the example you gave. As can be seen here: 1 Timothy 3, the ASV and RSV also use "women", but the NASB goes even further, with a footnote that reads "I.e., either deacons’ wives or deaconesses".


Meta4

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Originally Posted by Meta4
As can be seen here: 1 Timothy 3, the ASV and RSV also use "women",
1 Timothy 3:11-12 (ASV) 11 Women in like manner [must be] grave, not slanderers, temperate, faithful in all things. 12 Let deacons be husbands of one wife, ruling [their] children and their own houses well.

Yes, the ASV has "women", where in the Greek it is guna - goo-nay. The CONTEXT determines if it should be translated as woman, or wife. The very next verse, verse 12, makes it incontrovertibly clear that deacons are to be the "one wife's husband" (literally in the Greek as it is also found in verse 2. Thus, it really doesn't make a wit of difference if the translation has 'woman' or 'wife' IF the Spirit through Paul wanted to include women as deacons, would he not have also written that the women must be "one husband's wife"? scratchchin And as most of us know, there are several other passages that clearly forbid women to even speak in the Church, which really, IMO, is enough to show that elders and deacons must be biologically male (no transgenders allow)! drop

Your providing the footnote in the NASB where it has 'deaconesses' is appreciated. The text doesn't allow any such notion. nope


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Meta4

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Tom Offline
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Meta4

Thanks for the information about the ASV and RSV. Especially the footnote in the NASB.


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