There exists absolutely no counter-argument to the notion that instruments are mentioned in the Scriptures, and that instruments were used in worship. However, that notion alone (mention / use) is not enough to satisfy their prescription and necessity.
English Bibles, are not
necessary for Worship either, but they sure make worship a little more fulfilling (and they are not even mentioned in Scripture!). Does true worship involve the Word of God—the Bible? Since the original NT was in Greek why don’t you carry one of them to church instead of one that is translated? Since, the original OT was written in Hebrew/Aramaic why don’t you carry one of them to church instead of one that is translated? Why do you allow the
prescription of foreign language Bibles (English) in your congregation? Could it be to assist the people in true worship? The Scriptures do not say they are
necessary, nor do they directly
prescribe them? Your argument from this perspective continues to be invalid!
While the Scripture does not say the words
instruments are necessary it does reveal to us
a pattern of the use of instruments in worship of our LORD
in the assembly. My point is the LORD our God gives us patterns that should be emulated for His glory. Unless one be dispensational in their view of the Church, then one must concede that the Church in some forms continues from the OT to the NT. Since, in the OT instruments were used and in the NT they are not proclaimed as vain things from hell, IMHO their use should continue (see below).
No one said anything of the mere mention of instruments alone was enough to substantiate the use of instruments in worship—this is your misdirection of the issue. It is not only that they are merely mentioned numerous times, but
the context in which they are mentioned. What you are espousing is that we do away with their context and praise God
according to your experience, instead of praising God in accordance with what is in the Holy Writ. No offense meant, but I think we have a higher and more exact experience to go by—contained in the patterns of Holy Scripture.
Why is it that we give a certain preference to musical instruments in worship? Is it because they have an intrinsic capability to outline a beat or underline the tone?
Is not just the mere singing of a song (without instruments) to a beat and to a tone as well? How do you sing, much less speak without
any tone. Are all beat and tones sinful—
please show us where in Scripture? Does God listen to the musical tone and beats from the instruments in heaven?
The Bible records the history of the early Church. It is of a great mystery to me why the Apostle Paul when speaking of psalms, hymns, etc. did not specify the non-use of instruments seeing he knew full well their use in the OT with the Psalms (and in his day, et. al.)? Are we to believe that the OT saints were allowed to worship God with instruments (2 Sam 6:5, 21; 1 Chron 23:5; 2 Chron 29:25; Psalm 43:4, 68:25, 150:3-5), and that there are presently instruments in heaven itself (Rev 5:8, Rev 14:2, etc.), but that God prohibits them now in His Church? <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/scratch1.gif" alt="" /> That is some serious hermeneutical gymnastics. Where is this prohibition mentioned in the NT?
2 Chronicles 7:6 And the priests waited on their offices: the Levites also with instruments of musick of the LORD, which David the king had made to praise the LORD, because his mercy endureth for ever, when David praised by their ministry; and the priests sounded trumpets before them, and all Israel stood.
Revelation 15:2 And I saw what looked like a sea of glass mixed with fire and, standing beside the sea, those who had been victorious over the beast and his image and over the number of his name. They held harps given them by God.
PS: Please answer people’s individual posts. You appear to read several different posts from different individuals and then answer then all in one post. Please do not combine them—You are making things confusing???
