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#20757
Mon Jan 10, 2005 11:47 PM
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Joined: Sep 2003
Posts: 2,040
Persnickety Presbyterian 
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OP
Persnickety Presbyterian 
Joined: Sep 2003
Posts: 2,040 |
Scripture states that not all sin is unto death:
James 1:15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
Sin when it is FINISHED brings forth death. There is the beginning of sin, but then there is the end. Example: one might look at pornography, which is a sin. But as all sexual addicts will tell you, it doesn't stop there. Sin has to "finish" with the addict, and lead him into deeper and deeper currents of sin. Finally, he is out committing adultery, which is a mortal sin. This is the idea of sin leading to death. James is here describing how temptation leads to sin. The Lord Jesus Himself said that whoever looks at a woman to lust after her commits adultery in his heart (Matt. 5:28). That's not some sort of "incomplete" sin! It is as much a violation of the law as the physical act of adultery itself. If you look upon an attractive woman, that is not sin. If you note that she is a desireable woman, lust has conceived and gives birth to sin (here, the desire to continue looking is brought forth). If you continue to look after her, actively desiring her who is not your own, you have "completed" sin. 1 John 5:16 If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it.
"sin a sin which is not unto death Okay, your turn. What does that men if not that there are certain gradiants of sin, some not as serious as others and not all "unto death". I commend you to John Murray's interpretation: We may now turn to the apostle John. The incisiveness and decisiveness of John’s first epistle appear at no point more striking than where he, in terms peculiar to John himself, deals with the subject of our present interest. We think particularly of I John 3:6-9 in which the antithesis is most pronounced and might readily be interpreted as teaching sinless perfection. There are, however, several considerations which show that sinless perfection is not John’s meaning.
1. If John’s intent was to inculcate sinless perfection, then this passage would prove too much. In that event every regenerate person would be sinlessly perfect and only sinlessly perfect persons would be regenerate. The terms are that “every one who is begotten of God does not do sin . . . and he cannot sin because he is begotten of God” (I Jn. 3:9). On John’s own teaching sinless perfection is not the indispensable accompaniment of regeneration. In I John 2:1, John makes allowance for the incidence of sin in those whom he addresses as “little children” and directs us to the provision for this eventuality: “If any one sin we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ, the righteous.” Again, it is difficult, to say the least, to interpret the words, “The blood of Jesus his Son cleanseth us from all sin” (I Jn. 1:7), as not reflecting on the continuously cleansing efficacy of the blood of Christ. If there is provision for sin in the believer, then regeneration does not insure sinless perfection.
2. John says expressly: “If we say that we have no sin we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us” (I Jn. 1:8). If John in this case were thinking of past sin only, we should wonder why he uses the present tense. For on the assumption of sinless perfection there would be no present sin, and the use of the present tense would be misleading and constitute for his readers something of a contradiction to what on the premises would be one of the leading theses of the epistle.
3. John insists that “it hath not yet been manifested what we shall be” (I Jn. 3:2). This is defined for us in the same verse as likeness to the Father, a conformity such as will be achieved when the children of God will see him as he is. Anything short of that conformity is not sinless perfection. But this is precisely the shortcoming John affirms — “It hath not yet been manifested.” This confirmity is the hope entertained and, because it is that hoped for, the outcome for the believer is self-purification after the pattern of the Father’s purity. “Every one who has this hope in him [i.e., the Father] purifieth himself even as he is pure” (I Jn. 3:3). Self-purification implies impurity that needs to be cleansed.
4. John implies that sin may be committed by a believing brother: “If any one see his brother sin a sin not unto death, he will ask, and he will give him life for those who sin not unto death” (I Jn. 5:16). This is incontestably a reference to sin committed by a believer.
Sinless perfection cannot, for these reasons, be the import of John 3:6-9; 5:18. What then does the decisive language of John mean? The usage of our Lord as reported by John in his Gospel provides us with an index to John’s intent in the first epistle.
In answer to the disciple’s question concerning the man born blind: “Who did sin, this man or his parents that he was born blind?” Jesus said: “Neither hath this man sinned nor his parents, but that the works of God might be made manifest in him” (Jn. 9:2, 3). Jesus could not mean that the son and his parents were sinlessly perfect and had never sinned. The thought is simply that the blindness was not due to some specific sin for which the blindness had been inflicted as a punishment, the assumption underlying the disciples’ question.
In the sequel to the foregoing incident Jesus said to certain of the Pharisees: “If ye were blind, ye should not have sin; but now ye say we see; your sin remaineth” (Jn. 9:41). Again, sinless perfection cannot be in view in Jesus’ statement, “Ye should have no sin.” Jesus is thinking of the particular sin characteristic of the Pharisees, that of self-complacency and self-infatuation. From that sin they would he free if they were humble enough to acknowledge their blindness.
Finally in John’s Gospel, Jesus is reported to have said: “If I had not come and spoken unto them, they had not had sin. But now they have no cloak for their sin” (Jn. 15:22). Obviously, Jesus is speaking of the great sin of rejecting him and his Father (cf. Jn. 3:19).
Thus, in each instance, though the terms are absolute, some specific sin is in view, and the same principle must apply to the language of John with which we are concerned. Furthermore, in this epistle John himself gives us examples of the differentiation in terms of which we are to interpret his teaching. Whatever may be the sin unto death as distinguished from the sin not unto death (I Jn. 5:16, 17), there is undoubtedly radical differentiation in respect of character and consequence. It is the latter a believer is contemplated as committing but not the former. Since, according to 3:6-9; 5:18, the regenerate do not commit sin, it is surely justifiable to conclude that the sin he does not commit is the sin unto death.
In I John 4:2, 3 the apostle propounds the test of Christian faith. It is the confession that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. John’s antithetic incisiveness appears here again. “Every spirit that confesseth Jesus Christ come in the flesh is of God, and every spirit that confesseth not Jesus is not of God.” The force of verse 3 is that every one that does not confess Jesus, in the identity defined in verse 2, does not confess Jesus at all. We must infer that the sin a regenerate person does not commit is the denial of Jesus as come in the flesh or indeed the failure to confess Jesus Christ as come in the flesh. Speaking positively, everyone begotten of God believes and confesses that Jesus as come in the flesh is the Christ (cf. I Jn. 5:1). This is the faith that overcomes the world, and this victory is the mark of every regenerate person (cf. I Jn. 5:4). The upshot of these propositions is simply that the believer confesses Jesus as come in the flesh, believes that this Jesus is the Christ and that he is the Son of God, and cannot apostatize from this faith. The believer is the one who has secured the victory over the world, is immune to the dominion of the evil one, and is no longer characterized by that which is of the world, “the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life” (I Jn. 2:16). It is, therefore, in these terms that we are to interpret the sin that the person begotten of God does not commit and cannot commit.3
John’s language and patterns of thought differ from those of Paul, but the doctrine is to the same effect that for every believer in Jesus as the Christ and as the Son of God there is the decisive and irreversible breach with the world and with its defilement and power. And on the positive side, the characterization is no less significant of the radical differentiation from the realm of the wicked one. The person begotten of God does righteousness, loves and knows God, loves those who are begotten of God, and keeps the commandments of God (I Jn. 2:3-6, 29; 4:7, 20, 21; 5:2, 3). But just so we are talking on the same wavelength, would you define for me how you believe that the Catholic Faith teaches "works salvation?" Thank you. Canons on Justification from the Council of Trent:
Canon 4. If anyone says that man's free will moved and aroused by God, by assenting to God's call and action, in no way cooperates toward disposing and preparing itself to obtain the grace of justification, that it cannot refuse its assent if it wishes, but that, as something inanimate, it does nothing whatever and is merely passive, let him be anathema.
Canon 9. If anyone says that the sinner is justified by faith alone, meaning that nothing else is required to cooperate in order to obtain the grace of justification, and that it is not in any way necessary that he be prepared and disposed by the action of his own will, let him be anathema.
Canon 11. If anyone says that men are justified either by the sole imputation of the justice of Christ or by the sole remission of sins, to the exclusion of the grace and the charity which is poured forth in their hearts by the Holy Ghost, and remains in them, or also that the grace by which we are justified is only the good will of God, let him be anathema.
Canon 12. If anyone says that justifying faith is nothing else than confidence in divine mercy, which remits sins for Christ's sake, or that it is this confidence alone that justifies us, let him be anathema. I'll leave to you to figure out the "infallible interpretation" of these canons, but it seems clear to me that the Council of Trent claims that justification, whereby we are declared righteous before God, is obtained by man willing and working in cooperation with the grace of God. That's not "works alone justify," but it is "faith and works justify." Go back to Matthew 21: 33 - 46 and study the parable. There has only ever been one "eclessia" upon the earth. The same eclessia which was the Jewish nation in the Old Covenant is now the "new nation" (Gal. 6: 16) in the New Covenant which has been given the administration of the kingdom of God on earth.
The kingdom which has always been on earth is the temporal kingdom. It is to be replaced some day by the eternal kingdom. At that time, the office of the Holy Father will no longer be needed. The King will return and reign in person. In the meantime, He must have a prime minister who rules in His stead. The church in this dispensation is not an "earthly kingdom," nor is such a principle established from Scripture. In fact, the present church is the eternal kingdom, though it remains yet to be consummated with the new heaven and the new earth. No "prime minister" or "vicar" is needed, except the Holy Spirit! But even IF the papacy were a legitimate office, who serves as the covenantal helpmeet? I've already established that one-to-one correspondence requires that this helpmeet must not be more than one person; indeed, if we were to go from your initial reply to this vital question—that the Israelite theocracy was the covenantal helpmeet to the high priests—and maintain proper correspondence, i.e., that the judges and kings of Israel were each individually the covenantal helpmeets, then we'd have to say that some head of state currently fulfills the role of covenantal helpmeet to the Pope. This might have worked when Rome was a single unified empire; or it might even work if each state had its own Pope. But as it is, the analogy invalidates rather than justifies the papal office, precisely because the analogy is not carried through. I can't understand why Protestants cannot grasp a simple fact of life: the OFFICIAL teaching of the Catholic Church both doctrinally and morally, is found in the Catechism. Those who disagree with it are REBELS!! What do you not understand about that? There is but ONE OFFICIAL BODY OF TEACHING! Anyone holding any different opinion is of a rebellious spirit and needs to repent. What about those who agree with it and yet disagree with one another OVER ITS MEANING? Why can't you grasp that there is not one monolithic opinion throughout the Catholic Church on all matters of tradition? For example, are those conservatives within the church who understand that no one not in subjection to the Pope may be saved right in their interpretation of sacred tradition, or are their more liberal brethren within the church who understand that subjection to the Pope is not a necessity? Two other questions which you did not answer: 1) Why did Polycarp exhort the Philippians to study the Scripture, rather than exhort them to learn the Pope's interpretation of Scripture, if the Pope is the infallible interpreter? 2) How did Polycarp know that the Epistle to the Ephesians was Sacred Scripture before any Ecumenical Council or Pope determined so?
Kyle
I tell you, this man went down to his house justified.
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Entire Thread
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OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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CovenantInBlood
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Sat Jan 08, 2005 9:01 AM
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Re: OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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Anonymous
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Sun Jan 09, 2005 12:13 AM
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Re: OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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CovenantInBlood
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Sun Jan 09, 2005 1:22 AM
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Re: OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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Anonymous
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Sun Jan 09, 2005 9:58 PM
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Re: OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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CovenantInBlood
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Mon Jan 10, 2005 12:25 AM
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Re: OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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Anonymous
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Mon Jan 10, 2005 1:14 AM
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Re: OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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CovenantInBlood
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Mon Jan 10, 2005 4:26 AM
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Re: OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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Anonymous
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Mon Jan 10, 2005 10:15 PM
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Re: OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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CovenantInBlood
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Tue Jan 11, 2005 3:47 AM
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Re: OrthodoxCatholic: Questions & Responses for You
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HCRigby
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Tue Jan 11, 2005 10:14 AM
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