The Micah passage could be interpretted as seeing the covenant the groom entered into with the father to get the bride. The Ezekiel passage is more persuasive, if we assume that the metaphor of God's covenant with Israel is indicative of all marriages.
On the wedding night, there is shedding of blood, (or can be) another aspect of covenant.
About your Jewish commentary on the man giving his virgin, I do not think that necessarily applies. I Corinthians was probably written primarily to Gentiles. It does not even contain asides directed just to Jews as the book of Romans does. I would suspect the Gentiles did not follow Jewish customs in regard to courtship and marriage.
And the Jewish custom (which you do not show goes back to the first century) of using a friend or relative could still occur in a form of arranged marriage. It sounds similar to some Korean customs, and Koreans who get married that way are considered to have an 'arranged marriage.'
