Hey, I just wanted to say thanks for your replies. I really enjoyed the article on Sandemanianism. You both had really good points.
I did respond to this person with about a ten page rebuttal re: his view on assurance - and now I am working on some replies regarding his view of the Psalms.
I did have another question - what are your thoughts on the meaning of 2 Pet 1:20-21? knowing this first, that every prophecy of Scripture did not come into being of its own interpretation; for prophecy was not at any time borne by the will of man, but being borne along by the Holy Spirit, holy men of God spoke.
This person I'm debating thinks that this verse means that the Psalms are not to be interpreted as David's "private" experiences.
He Writes:"The Apostle Peter rejects the idea of original author intent. The prophecies had NOTHING to do with the private experiences of the prophets.

"knowing this first, that every prophecy of Scripture did not come into being of its own interpretation; for prophecy was not at any time borne by the will of man, but being borne along by the Holy Spirit, holy men of God spoke." (2 Pet 1:20-21)

Peter is not merely saying the prophets were infallible. He is saying that there was NO involvment of their wills.
Now, Tracy also objects to this view and wrote me, "Of COURSE there is prophecy in the Psalms – and some so much so that they are called “Messianic” Psalms. You have also overlooked the possibility that even the verses that are mentioned in the NT – could be talking about BOTH Christ and David." (Tracy Figard, Northwestern)

Are you sure about that, Tracy?

For example, is Psalm 63 about "both Christ and David"? The final verse of the Psalm says...

"But the king shall rejoice in God; everyone who swears by Him shall glory" (Psa 63:11)

Now, which "king" is this Psalm about? The King over all Jesus Christ! And this Psalm has absolutely NO application to David, because men were only to swear by God's name.

"You shall fear the Lord your GOD, and serve Him, and shall SWEAR BY HIS NAME". (Deut 6:13)

So here we see that David merely a mouthpiece of the Holy Spirit prophesying about Christ."

Ok, this is Tracy again - after a while this can just get exasperating, b/c there is so much error here. Yes, it's true that there is a lot about Chirst here, and that many verses are spoken as the "words of the Lord" - as David was God's penman, just as all the other writers of the Bible were. - But to say that every single word withotu a single exception in the Psalms is a messianic prophecy or Christ speaking through David is gonig too far. I think I need to pray that he would just understand.
Anyways,
Do you have any other thoughts on this?