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William said:
The New Testament teaches to give as a man purposes in his heart but I believe 1 Corinthians 16:2 teaches that we are to give as “God hath prospered” and that our giving should be proportionate to our income. What proportion? The only proportion mentioned in the Bible is the Old Testament practice of the tithe which serves as a good guideline.
William,

I agree whole heartily with this since the optimum word is guideline in regard to the idea of the tithe. There is no direct or even implicit teaching in the N.T. that would bind believers to a 10% proportion of their income. If such a mandate existed, then it would be a sin for anyone to neglect giving a minimum of 10%. There are only 10 Commandments; not 11. wink What we do find in the N.T. is an encouragement to give liberally and joyfully as the Lord has provided and as He enables.

Secondly, the tithe in the O.T. was established for a specific purpose, which purpose no longer exists and/or applies to the N.T. Church. When Ananias and Sapphira decided to give a portion of their land despite the fact that they lied as to the actual amount given, (Acts 5:1) they could have given but a small part of that land and no one would have deemed them sinners for not giving at least 10% of it.

Lastly, for someone as yourself who has personally opted to use 10% as a guideline, it is a personal decision to do so and cannot be used to judge another; not that you would even think of doing that! BigThumbUp To me, those who choose to make the tithe a N.T. "law" to which ALL believers must be bound by conscience and obedience is nothing less than Pharisaism and such a view must be relegated to the dung heap along with similar "rules" such as prohibitions against drinking of alcohol, dancing, card playing, etc. rolleyes2

In His grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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