The next article in Tabletalk is 'Understanding John's Prophecy'. It is written by Keith Mathieson (Matheison) and he takes the view that John wrote it between 64-70 AD instead of 95-96 AD. Doesn't that change how to understand the book dramatically. I haven't read that far into it, but he probably takes the preterist position (I mean partial preterist). Isn't the preterist position a relative new one as compared to the others?


John Chaney

"having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in your faith . . ." Colossians 2:7