"He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God." (Jn. 3:18)

Apart from sufficiency for the reprobate, I don't understand how the text above can say "because." Certainly, original and actual sin is enough ground for condemnation, but this "because" adds to that condemnation. It seems to logically follow that apart from sufficiency for them, the "because" is meaningless.

"...and with all unrighteous deception among those who perish, because they did not receive the love of the truth, that they might be saved." (2 Thes. 2:10)

If receiving the love of the truth would have saved them hypothetically, doesn't this necessitate sufficiency for them? I don't think the text is saying that such reception would have made them elect, as that would be mixing first and second causes...