From what I understand, slavery, like divorce, is a result of the Fall. The Bible treats it as a necessary evil, and that it can be done within Biblical parameters. Slaves could be held, but they had to be treated well and they had to be freed in the year of Jubilee. Thus slavery was really a form of indentured servitude, not the sort of slavery that was practiced in 19th c. United States, which was sinful and exascerbated by man-stealing, which is definitely a sin.<br><br>That's just a quick take on it...it's a pretty complicated subject. I'm only just learning a bit about it now myself.
Historically, Presbyterians were divided over the issue of slavery. This was one of the topics that caused the presbyterian split into Old school and New school branches in 1837-38.
Charles Hodge wrote in 1836 that abolitionism would increase dissension in the North and promote hatred in the South. Slavery was not condemned as sinful in Scripture, Hodge wrote,but he did hope that it would end as the gradual improvement of the blacks brought it about. (from [i]The Dictionary of the Presbyterian and Reformed Tradition in America[i], 1999 Hart and Noll)
Hey, I figured I just throw my 2 cents in as it were since this is a discussion board. E F Grant seems to have a handle on it, at least I understand it in that same manner. Racial slavery and biblical slavery aren't necessarilly the same things, and hey, what were the Jews to do? Locking up poor people and prisoners of war wasn't really as feasable and logical as using them in forced labor. Even today America uses prisoners to clean up the highways and do other such public services. It fits with the whole idea suggested in the New Testament by Paul in 2 Thessalonians 3:10. And if I may add, I recall no rebukes on Old Testament persons like the Patriarchs, David and Solomon (and what about them concubines <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/wink.gif" alt="" />) and Paul doesn't really rebuke or correct Philemon when he an epistle to him.
Oh, and it's interesting that Paul should use the word Bondservant (depends on translation but that's it in Greek) to describe himself when he wrote Romans, Philippians, and Titus. And then to use the word again twice in Philemon while also calling himself a prisoner, I'm guessing Paul wasn't too put off by this concept. And if you don't like it, well, God had a law concerning it and made numerous comments about your manservants and your maidservants so read Exodus and Leviticus.
