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bestrech said:
If Christ was praying that God would remove the cup of suffering for sin, this troubles me. Maybe it is nothing, and I'm just thinking more than I ought. But, Jesus said his very purpose for coming to earth, was to be the one to die for redemption. Why, then would he pray to be relieved of the very purpose he proclaimed?

SDG
bestrech,

Perhaps the answer is to be found by taking into consideration the two natures of Christ? Since Christ as the Second Adam was fully human, He was subject to myriad trials and temptations and through them, learned through obedience:

Hebrews 5:8 (KJV) "Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered;"


It should also be iterated that in His prayer to the Father, He did say, "not mine will, but thine be done"! Thus He was expressing the agony from the anticipation of what He was about to endure as it weighted upon Him in those final hours.

In His Grace,

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simul iustus et peccator

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