averagefeller quoted 1Co 13:8: Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.
1Co 13:9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.
1Co 13:10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away."
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I have a few questions, directed to no one in particular. My questions might clearly reveal I've misunderstood one or many things
; but I hope no one thinks them insincere or an attempt to play devil's advocate.
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I take the first verse given at face value.
I do have trouble understanding why the next 2 verses are interpreted to say that certain gifts have ceased.
The writer of these verses indicates he presently knows "in part". If we take this to mean that all scripture to that point had not been given, THEN, when scripture *was* finally completely revealed what had come before (that was only a partial revelation) by necessity should have been "done away" with. Is this, perhaps, a backhanded way of saying that our *partial knowledge* ceased and was replaced by *full knowledge*? If so, tell me who has this full knowledge among us, and *knows* it NOT "in part"?
What is the perfection to come, spoken of in vs 10(a)? Is it possible this is not a reference to the full revelation of scripture but the physical kingdom of God on earth at the end of time that *fulfills* scripture? Isn't it only then that "whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away."?
If knowledge was among those things the early church was given as a gift (if not a gift, and that's what we're talking about here, why is it included in this verse?), has it passed away even though all scripture has been revealed? Are some saying tongues should be treated differently and separately here, when it clearly is given place with prophecy and knowledge in this verse?
What is the form, character and substance of the "knowledge" that the scripturist referred to here? Those who are learned in Greek may be able to help.....
Finally, regarding the last verse given: I'm a little rusty after all these years about when the canon was accepted as we have it today. Are those among us on the board who say the gifts ceased in 70 A.D. also saying those parts which were not in the canon at that time have been done away with? Clearly they are present in print today and have not been done away with. Is there a different meaning for the "done away" portion of this verse?
Thanks in advance....
Cecil
