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speratus said:

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Pilgrim said:
And where, pray tell, is this to be found in God's inspired Word? I did find mention of such things however, e.g., "posting of bans", "betrothal contracts", etc., in one particular book I have on my shelf which is titled, "The Devised Standard Version". Would that be your source?

Not the Deformed Standard Version but the moral law of God as revealed in the Ten Commandments. Your modernist view runs counter to the historic practice of Reformation churches. The posting of banns was included in the first prayer book of the Anglican Church.
The Ten Commandments you say? So, which commandment applies to this issue and teaches that a marriage takes place when a couple has sex and/or agrees to get married?

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1549 Book of Common Prayer
THE FORME OF SOLEMNIZACION OF MATRIMONIE.

ΒΆ First the bannes must be asked three several Soondayes or holye dayes. in the service tyme, the people beeyng presente, after the accustomed maner. etc., etc.
Sorry, but my Bible does not contain that passage. Therefore, I stand with Luther and all the other Reformers that unless you can show me from SCRIPTURE where such a thing is taught, I cannot accept such a thing as that which binds my conscience and demands my obedience.


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Westminster Confession of Faith
Adultery or fornication committed after a contract, being detected before marriage, gives just occasion to the innocent party to dissolve that contract.
Do you agree or disagree with Westminster? Or, is it simply obsolete? A remnant of an orthodox past when Christian betrothal actually meant a lifelong commitment?
I agree with the WCF on this matter, as it can be substantiated from SCRIPTURE. Notice that this statement says "being detected [/b]". Therefore, it clearly disproves your novel view that marriage is solemnized and legitimate when two people either have sex together and/or when they agree between themselves to get married. If that were true, then you are forced to confess that as long as two people agree "to be married" then they cannot be guilty of fornication, for they are in your opinion already married. SCRIPTURE is against you,


1 Corinthians 7:9 (ASV) "But if they have not continency, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn."


So, is it your understanding that Paul is saying that if a couple burns with lust (passion) for each other then all that is necessary is that they should simply commit to marry? which is synonymous with actual marriage? I can agree to buy a car from an automobile dealership, but that is not the same as my actually owning the car.

In His grace,

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simul iustus et peccator

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