Hopefully one the learned members can help me out with this. I have been having a friendly debate with an Arminian friend, and we are on to Total Depravity. I was looking at Romans 1:18-32 as a scriptural illustration of the doctrine. It is my sense, and belief, that Paul gives a general description here of mankind apart from Christ, so what he describes is the basic state of unregenerate man. IN the KJV, NKJV, and NASB, 1:18 has:

For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who suppress the truth in unrighteousness,

As you can see in this NASB rendering, the comma following men, which seems to indicate that Paul has a general "man" in view, as in humanity. However, the NASB update, NIV, RSV all have no comma, and there is no comma follwing men in the original greek in the interlinear bible I looked at. To me, the insertion or deletion of the comma can change the whole sense of the passage. If there is no comma follwing men, then Paul would appear to referring to specific individuals who manifest the traits he goes on to speak about. With the comma, men becomes much more general- at least in my understanding. So, can anyone help me out with why certain translations have included the comma or not, and for the ones that have, what is the warrant ofr doing so? I am not a Greek scholar, or even really a dabbler, so I have no idea.

Thanks!

Jeff