The Highway Forums General Discussion Open Forum Old Testament Law

wfr3,<br><br>Unfortunately and like your friend "Alex_Light", you have conveniently ignored my exegesis of the Rom 7:14 and its context as well as most all my other questions. Perhaps you might consider another biblical passage in light of your dismissal of God's moral law as being obligatory upon all men until the end of the age when Christ returns:<blockquote>Jeremiah 31:31-33 (ASV) "Behold, the days come, saith Jehovah, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was a husband unto them, saith Jehovah. But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith Jehovah: <span style="background-color:yellow;">I will put my law in their inward parts, and in their heart will I write it;</span> and I will be their God, and they shall be my people:"</blockquote>This "new covenant" is obviously that covenant established by Christ and his vicarious substitutionary atonement for and with those whom the Father gave Him, i.e., the elect, predestined from before the foundation of the world. In this context, it is the LORD God speaking and Who says He is going to "write HIS LAW in the hearts of those who will become "His people". Will you now suggest that God had another law other than that which all men from Adam onward lived under, were held accountable to, and judged by? Secondly, will you suggest that when the Lord Christ taught His disciples, "If you love me, you will keep my commandments", that they belonged to yet "another covenant" other than the one the LORD spoke of in Jeremiah? and that the "commandments" that Jesus referred to were something totally different than either the moral law established from Adam and/or that which was given to Moses on Sinai, aka: the Decalogue? In short, do you deny the oneness of purpose in the Trinity and dissimulation in the revelation given to man in the inspired biblical record?<br><br>In His Grace,