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Was it Christ's intention to die on behalf of the unrepentant, yes or no? If yes: Did Christ fail in His mission since His propitiation is not effective for the unrepentant, yes or no?

Who decides what is effective? Christ died for all sins, past, present, future, so that no-one can claim impunity against God.

To propiate is to appease an offended party, to turn away wrath. If Christ's propitiation (turning away the wrath of God) was on behalf of the unrepentant, His propitiation is ineffective if the unrepentant still remain subject to God's wrath. That is, Christ's turning away of God's wrath toward the unrepentant does not actually turn away God's wrath toward the unrepentant. If Christ died for all sins, past, present, and future, then his death is ineffective if anyone is still subject to God's wrath. There must then be some other principle that is effective in salvation other than Christ's death, whether man's choice or something else. It's not a matter of who decides what is or is not effective; it's a matter of logic and scriptural teaching. So, please answer my questions:

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Was it Christ's intention to die on behalf of the unrepentant, yes or no? If yes: Did Christ fail in His mission since His propitiation is not effective for the unrepentant, yes or no?

Kyle

I tell you, this man went down to his house justified.