AC,

If (rhetorically) the Scriptural teaching re: justification is a divine judicial pronunciation/declaration that a sinner is not guilty due to the sufficiency of the merits of another accredited to him, how is it even logically possible that justification could be a "process"?

You are either guilty or not guilty. It simply doesn't make sense to suggest that a person is "becoming not guilty" particularly when one understands the nature of Christ's "once-for-all" vicarious substitutionary atonement. Christ's sacrifice was ACCEPTED by God as a FULL and COMPLETE payment for those whom He died. And when the merits of that atonement are applied to the elect, they are FULLY and COMPLETELY justified the moment they believe. For it is the work of the Spirit, fully in accord and complimentary to the will of the Father and Son, to regenerate, call, justify, sanctify and glorify those predestined to salvation in Christ Jesus. The only "process" is in the transformation of the believer AFTER they are justified. And this was and continues to be the major division between Rome and biblical Christianity; Sola Fide.

Since the followers of the Roman State Church are wanting to use Abraham and David as examples to formulate their doctrine vs. the clear didactic statements by the apostle Paul, et al, then perhaps they should consider a better example in the life of Joshua the high priest:


Zechariah 3:1-5 (ASV) "And he showed me Joshua the high priest standing before the angel of Jehovah, and Satan standing at his right hand to be his adversary. And Jehovah said unto Satan, Jehovah rebuke thee, O Satan; yea, Jehovah that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand plucked out of the fire? Now Joshua was clothed with filthy garments, and was standing before the angel. And he answered and spake unto those that stood before him, saying, Take the filthy garments from off him. And unto him he said, Behold, I have caused thine iniquity to pass from thee, and I will clothe thee with rich apparel. And I said, Let them set a clean mitre upon his head. So they set a clean mitre upon his head, and clothed him with garments; and the angel of Jehovah was standing by."


How much clearer could one want the Holy Spirit have made it in this passage that a person is IMMEDIATELY deemed justified (righteous) before God? Joshua's "filthy garments" and sins were removed (cf. 2Sam 12:13; 24:10). He was then clothed with "rich apparel" (righteousness; Rev 3:4; 7:9) and a "clean mitre" was placed upon his head (cf. Ezek 21:31; Isa 62:3) which symbolized his priestly office (cf. 1Pet 2:5, 9; Rev 1:6; 5:10; 20:6). It should also be pointed out that Joshua wasn't made or infused with righteousness but rather he was clothed with righteousness which was not his own but a righteousness which was placed upon him; aka: alien righteousness. The garment and mitre didn't gradually materialize around him over a period of years. Contrariwise, he was clothed with these garments and mitre and was IMMEDIATELY declared and recognized as righteous.

simul iustus et peccator

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simul iustus et peccator

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