Originally Posted by Pilgrim
So, when we get to the New Testament where as paedobaptists we understand that baptism has replaced circumcision as the covenant sign, we must insist that household baptisms were administered on the basis of that which had been practiced for millennia; believers and their children. Seeing that the gospel came first to the Jews, they would expect that their children would be included. Thus, the question regarding "older unbelieving family members" is mute. Adults must profess faith (notice I did not say 'believers' although that is certainly true. wink) in order to receive baptism. The children of those professing faith are still included in the covenant since there is nowhere to be found a rescinding of children from the original covenant injunction.

Just to press a little. Were not Lydia and the Philippian jailer Gentiles? And yet their families were baptized even though they did not have millenia of Jewish heritage?

How do you determine if an infant/very young child is old enough to no longer be subject to his parents choice but be required to make a profession of faith?

John