Originally Posted by AllToHim
Does the "he" refer to the apostate or to Christ? If it refers to the apostate, it sounds like a fall from grace, a loss of salvation, does it not?
1. The "he" is clearly the apostate individual.

2. Yes, it can be misconstrued as teaching one can 'fall from grace'. On the most basic level, this text can be correctly understood if one applies the Bible's own hermeneutic (method of interpretation) of which one of the fundamental principles is, the less clear passages are always to be interpreted by the more clear. So, how does this principle apply here? There are many clear passages which teach that NOT ONE sinner who is truly united to Christ due to the Spirit's work in him and his consequent believing upon Christ can be nor will be lost, e.g., Jh 6:37,47; 17:2; 10:28,29; Rom 8:29,30; Eph 2:4-13; 2Thess 2:13,14; Titus 3:3-7; 1Jh 2:19.

Those who have received Christ with a true Spirit-wrought repentance and faith will continue to hold on to Christ due to the work of the same indwelling Spirit and thus exhibit the fruit of the Spirit. Yes, sinners are justified by faith ALONE... but not by a faith that IS alone. Put another way, a genuine justifying faith is also a persevering sanctifying faith. Another example of the type of individuals which Heb 10:26-31 is speaking about can be seen in the parable of the Sower; Matt 13:3-16; Mk 4:3-20; Lk 8:5-15.

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simul iustus et peccator

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