I have a question regarding 2 Peter 2:1 “But there were also false prophets among the people, even as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Lord who bought them, and bring on themselves swift destruction.” NKJV

In looking at some Reformed commentaries, particularly where it says: “even denying the Lord who bought them”. They say that the NT distinguishes between purchase and redemption. All are purchased but not all are redeemed. To quote one commentary (Believer’s Bible Commentary): “While His work is sufficient for redemption of all mankind, it is only effective for those who repent, believe, and accept him.”

This is the understanding of such notables as CH Spurgeon and John MacArthur; which by the way, is how they also interpret Jn. 3:16.

Would you concur with this commentary?
If not how would you interpret the words “even denying the Lord who bought them” in light of the context of the passage?
Especially when we consider that false prophets and false teachers are false Christians.

Something that comes to my mind when it comes to what these commentaries say is. Why would Christ purchase all mankind if He wasn't going to redeem them also?
This would seem to be more in line with Wesleyan prevenient grace, where by God purchased all man, thus making it possible for man to repent, and believe in Christ. Rather than be irresistibly drawn to repent and believe in Christ.

Saying: “While His work is sufficient for redemption of all mankind, it is only effective for those who repent, believe, and accept him.” Also makes it sound like redemption is determined by the work of man himself when he repents believes and accepts him.

I might be reading too much into what they are trying to say, but I find the language they are using to be confusing.

Tom




Last edited by Tom; Sat Dec 25, 2010 12:44 AM.